Admissions, Discharge and Transfer
Can a facility discharge a resident for nonpayment?
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Admissions, Discharge and Transfer
Only after proper notice and when the resident has failed to pay. Discharge is generally inappropriate when payment is delayed by a pending Medicaid or Medicare process.
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Admissions, Discharge and Transfer
Can a facility require a family member to guarantee payment?
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Admissions, Discharge and Transfer
No. It may ask a person with legal access to the resident's funds to agree to pay from those funds, but that person is not personally liable.
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Admissions, Discharge and Transfer
Can a facility require binding arbitration as a condition of admission?
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Admissions, Discharge and Transfer
No. Arbitration agreements must be voluntary, explained in plain language and may not be a condition of admission or continued stay.
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Admissions, Discharge and Transfer
Do observation days count toward the 3-day stay?
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Admissions, Discharge and Transfer
No. Time in observation or the emergency department is outpatient status and does not count, so confirm inpatient status.
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Admissions, Discharge and Transfer
How does Medicare Advantage affect admissions?
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Admissions, Discharge and Transfer
Plans often require prior authorization and may waive the 3-day stay. Verify authorization and coverage rules with each plan before admitting.
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Admissions, Discharge and Transfer
How should a facility handle a discharge against medical advice (AMA)?
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Admissions, Discharge and Transfer
Explain the risks, offer alternatives and referrals, ask the resident to sign the AMA form, and document any refusal to sign.
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Admissions, Discharge and Transfer
What appeal rights does a resident have after an involuntary discharge notice?
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Admissions, Discharge and Transfer
The right to appeal to the state agency designated for hearings. The notice must state how and by when to appeal.
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Admissions, Discharge and Transfer
What are the readmission rights after a hospital stay?
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Admissions, Discharge and Transfer
A resident who needs nursing services must be readmitted to the first available bed in a semi-private room, even after bed-hold days end.
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Admissions, Discharge and Transfer
What belongs in a safe discharge to home?
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Admissions, Discharge and Transfer
Medication reconciliation, home health and equipment arrangements, follow-up appointments, teaching of the resident and caregivers with teach-back, and a clear written plan.
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Admissions, Discharge and Transfer
What documents are collected at admission?
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Admissions, Discharge and Transfer
Physician orders, history and physical, PASRR, TB screening and immunization history, advance directives, consents, financial forms and an inventory of belongings.
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Admissions, Discharge and Transfer
What does discharge planning require?
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Admissions, Discharge and Transfer
A process that involves the resident and representative, evaluates goals, caregiver capacity and needs, arranges services and gives a post-discharge plan of care.
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Admissions, Discharge and Transfer
What does Medicaid require for nursing facility admission?
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Admissions, Discharge and Transfer
State level-of-care approval, PASRR screening and financial eligibility.
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Admissions, Discharge and Transfer
What does pre-admission screening involve?
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Admissions, Discharge and Transfer
Review of the referral, hospital records and clinical needs, payer source and the facility's ability to meet the person's needs before agreeing to admit.
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Admissions, Discharge and Transfer
What information must go with a resident transferred to a hospital?
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Admissions, Discharge and Transfer
Contact information, advance directives and code status, special instructions, infection status, medication list, comprehensive care plan goals and the facility's contact details.
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Admissions, Discharge and Transfer
What is INTERACT?
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Admissions, Discharge and Transfer
Interventions to Reduce Acute Care Transfers, a quality program with tools such as Stop and Watch, SBAR communication and care paths to catch decline early and avoid hospital transfers.
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Admissions, Discharge and Transfer
What is MDS Section Q?
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Admissions, Discharge and Transfer
Participation in assessment and goal setting. It records whether the resident wants to return to the community, leading to a referral to the Local Contact Agency.
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Admissions, Discharge and Transfer
What is the difference between a transfer and a discharge?
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Admissions, Discharge and Transfer
A transfer is a move to another institution that is legally responsible for the resident, such as a hospital. A discharge is a move to a non-institutional setting, such as home.
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Admissions, Discharge and Transfer
What is the Medicaid look-back period?
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Admissions, Discharge and Transfer
Five years (60 months). Asset transfers for less than fair value in that period can trigger a penalty period during which Medicaid long-term care is not paid.
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Admissions, Discharge and Transfer
What is the Medicare 3-day qualifying stay?
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Admissions, Discharge and Transfer
Medicare Part A covers skilled nursing facility care after at least 3 consecutive inpatient hospital days, not counting the discharge day, with admission to the facility within 30 days.
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Admissions, Discharge and Transfer
What is the Notice of Medicare Non-Coverage (NOMNC)?
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Admissions, Discharge and Transfer
A notice delivered at least 2 days before Medicare-covered services end. It tells the resident how to request a fast appeal from the Quality Improvement Organization by noon of the day before services end.
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Admissions, Discharge and Transfer
What is the rule on charging Medicaid residents?
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Admissions, Discharge and Transfer
A facility may not require a private-pay period before Medicaid, ask for a deposit from Medicaid residents, or charge them differently for covered services.
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Admissions, Discharge and Transfer
What is the SNF Advance Beneficiary Notice (SNF ABN)?
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Admissions, Discharge and Transfer
A form (CMS-10055) given when the facility expects Medicare not to pay for an item or service, such as custodial care. It lets the resident decide whether to receive the care and accept the cost.
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Admissions, Discharge and Transfer
What is therapeutic leave and what must a facility arrange?
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Admissions, Discharge and Transfer
A physician-approved temporary absence, such as a family visit. The facility prepares medications and instructions, documents the leave and follows state bed-hold and payment rules.
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Admissions, Discharge and Transfer
What must a discharge summary include?
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Admissions, Discharge and Transfer
A recapitulation of the stay, a final summary of the resident's status, a reconciliation of medications and a post-discharge plan of care.
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Admissions, Discharge and Transfer
What must a transfer or discharge notice contain?
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Admissions, Discharge and Transfer
The reason, effective date, destination, appeal rights and contact information, and ombudsman contact details, in a language and manner the resident understands.
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Admissions, Discharge and Transfer
What must an administrator do when a facility will close?
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Admissions, Discharge and Transfer
Give written notice to the state, residents, representatives and the ombudsman at least 60 days ahead, or as state law requires, and submit a plan to relocate residents safely.
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Admissions, Discharge and Transfer
What must an admission agreement not require of a resident?
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Admissions, Discharge and Transfer
It may not require a resident to waive rights or Medicare or Medicaid benefits, and must not require a third party to guarantee payment.
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Admissions, Discharge and Transfer
What must residents be told at admission?
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Admissions, Discharge and Transfer
Their rights and facility rules, services and charges, how to file grievances, the ombudsman contact, how to see survey results, bed-hold policy and advance directive rights.
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Admissions, Discharge and Transfer
What rights apply to room and roommate changes?
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Admissions, Discharge and Transfer
Residents have the right to notice, with the reason documented, before a room or roommate change, and may share a room with a spouse.
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Admissions, Discharge and Transfer
Why inventory a resident's belongings at admission?
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Admissions, Discharge and Transfer
To protect residents and the facility. The facility must safeguard property, keep the list current and investigate any loss or theft.
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Clinical Care, Care Planning and the MDS
How are pressure injuries staged?
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Clinical Care, Care Planning and the MDS
Stage 1 is non-blanchable redness. Stage 2 is partial-thickness loss. Stage 3 is full-thickness skin loss. Stage 4 is full-thickness loss with exposed bone, tendon or muscle. Others are unstageable and deep tissue injury.
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Clinical Care, Care Planning and the MDS
How does the MDS screen for depression?
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Clinical Care, Care Planning and the MDS
Section D uses the PHQ-9 resident mood interview. A staff assessment version is used when the resident cannot be interviewed.
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Clinical Care, Care Planning and the MDS
How is a fall defined for MDS and clinical purposes?
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Clinical Care, Care Planning and the MDS
An unintentional change in position that brings the person to rest on the floor or a lower level, whether or not they are injured.
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Clinical Care, Care Planning and the MDS
How is the Brief Interview for Mental Status (BIMS) scored?
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Clinical Care, Care Planning and the MDS
Scores range from 0 to 15. A score of 13 to 15 means cognitively intact, 8 to 12 moderately impaired, and 0 to 7 severely impaired.
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Clinical Care, Care Planning and the MDS
How often are quarterly and annual MDS assessments required?
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Clinical Care, Care Planning and the MDS
A quarterly assessment at least every 92 days and a comprehensive annual assessment at least every 366 days.
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Clinical Care, Care Planning and the MDS
How often must a physician visit a nursing home resident?
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Clinical Care, Care Planning and the MDS
Every 30 days for the first 90 days after admission and at least every 60 days after that. Visits may alternate with a nurse practitioner or physician assistant as allowed.
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Clinical Care, Care Planning and the MDS
What are core fall prevention strategies in a nursing home?
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Clinical Care, Care Planning and the MDS
Assess fall risk on admission and after any fall, review medications, set toileting schedules, ensure proper footwear and lighting, provide exercise and therapy, and avoid using restraints as a solution.
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Clinical Care, Care Planning and the MDS
What are core pressure injury prevention measures?
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Clinical Care, Care Planning and the MDS
Skin inspection, repositioning on a schedule set by the care plan, pressure-redistributing surfaces, moisture management, adequate nutrition and hydration, and heel offloading.
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Clinical Care, Care Planning and the MDS
What are key oxygen safety rules in a nursing home?
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Clinical Care, Care Planning and the MDS
Post no-smoking and oxygen signs, keep flames and heat sources away, secure cylinders upright, and follow the physician's order for flow rate.
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Clinical Care, Care Planning and the MDS
What are the facility's duties on pain management?
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Clinical Care, Care Planning and the MDS
Ensure pain control meets professional standards and the care plan, using non-drug approaches as well as medication, and respect the resident's goals and preferences.
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Clinical Care, Care Planning and the MDS
What are the key duties of the medical director?
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Clinical Care, Care Planning and the MDS
Implement resident care policies, coordinate medical care, and help the facility with quality assurance and infection control. The medical director works with the administrator but does not report to them clinically.
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Clinical Care, Care Planning and the MDS
What are the MDS entry and discharge records?
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Clinical Care, Care Planning and the MDS
An entry tracking record is completed on admission or reentry. A discharge assessment is completed when a resident leaves, either return anticipated or not anticipated, and a death in facility record is completed at death.
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Clinical Care, Care Planning and the MDS
What counts as significant unplanned weight loss?
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Clinical Care, Care Planning and the MDS
5% in one month, 7.5% in three months, or 10% in six months. It should trigger assessment and a care plan response.
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Clinical Care, Care Planning and the MDS
What dental services must a facility provide?
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Clinical Care, Care Planning and the MDS
Routine and emergency dental services as needed, including help with appointments and transport. If dentures are lost or damaged, a referral must be made within 3 days.
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Clinical Care, Care Planning and the MDS
What does MDS Section GG measure?
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Clinical Care, Care Planning and the MDS
Functional abilities and goals in self-care and mobility. It feeds PDPM function scores and quality reporting.
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Clinical Care, Care Planning and the MDS
What does the facility owe a resident regarding activities of daily living (ADLs)?
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Clinical Care, Care Planning and the MDS
Care and services to maintain or improve ADLs, such as bathing, dressing, eating, toileting and mobility, unless decline is unavoidable because of the resident's condition.
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Clinical Care, Care Planning and the MDS
What help must a facility provide for vision and hearing?
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Clinical Care, Care Planning and the MDS
Assist residents in getting eye and hearing exams, eyeglasses and hearing aids, and in repairing or replacing them.
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Clinical Care, Care Planning and the MDS
What is a baseline care plan?
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Clinical Care, Care Planning and the MDS
An initial plan developed within 48 hours of admission that includes initial goals, physician orders, dietary orders, therapy, social services and PASRR recommendations.
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Clinical Care, Care Planning and the MDS
What is a significant change in status assessment (SCSA)?
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Clinical Care, Care Planning and the MDS
A comprehensive reassessment done when a resident has a major decline or improvement that will not resolve on its own. It must be completed within 14 days of determining the change.
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Clinical Care, Care Planning and the MDS
What is PASRR?
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Clinical Care, Care Planning and the MDS
Preadmission Screening and Resident Review. It screens for serious mental illness and intellectual disability before admission to a Medicaid-certified facility, with a Level I screen and a Level II evaluation when needed.
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Clinical Care, Care Planning and the MDS
What is restorative nursing?
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Clinical Care, Care Planning and the MDS
A nursing program that helps residents maintain or improve function, such as walking, range of motion, dressing and eating skills. It follows the care plan and is documented.
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Clinical Care, Care Planning and the MDS
What is the Assessment Reference Date (ARD) on the MDS?
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Clinical Care, Care Planning and the MDS
The last day of the look-back period that an MDS assessment covers. The interdisciplinary team sets it so the assessment captures the right observation window.
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Clinical Care, Care Planning and the MDS
What is the Braden Scale?
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Clinical Care, Care Planning and the MDS
A pressure injury risk tool scoring sensory perception, moisture, activity, mobility, nutrition, and friction and shear. Lower scores mean higher risk, and 18 or below is commonly treated as at risk.
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Clinical Care, Care Planning and the MDS
What is the Care Area Assessment (CAA) process?
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Clinical Care, Care Planning and the MDS
A review of MDS responses that trigger potential problem areas, used to decide which need further assessment and care planning.
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Clinical Care, Care Planning and the MDS
What is the Minimum Data Set (MDS) 3.0?
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Clinical Care, Care Planning and the MDS
A standardized assessment of each resident's health, function, strengths and needs. It drives care planning, Medicare payment and quality measures.
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Clinical Care, Care Planning and the MDS
What is the Patient Driven Payment Model (PDPM)?
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Clinical Care, Care Planning and the MDS
The Medicare Part A skilled nursing payment model effective October 1, 2019. It pays based on resident characteristics across PT, OT, SLP, nursing and non-therapy ancillary components, not therapy minutes.
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Clinical Care, Care Planning and the MDS
What is the Resident Assessment Instrument (RAI)?
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Clinical Care, Care Planning and the MDS
The federally required process for assessing residents, made up of the MDS 3.0, the Care Area Assessment process and the RAI User's Manual guidelines.
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Clinical Care, Care Planning and the MDS
What must a facility do about accident hazards?
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Clinical Care, Care Planning and the MDS
Keep the environment as free of accident hazards as possible and provide each resident with adequate supervision and assistive devices to prevent accidents.
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Clinical Care, Care Planning and the MDS
What must a facility do for residents who receive dialysis?
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Clinical Care, Care Planning and the MDS
Coordinate with the dialysis facility, share information on transfers, monitor the access site and ensure care meets professional standards.
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Clinical Care, Care Planning and the MDS
When can side rails be considered a restraint?
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Clinical Care, Care Planning and the MDS
When the resident cannot lower them or get out of bed voluntarily. Use requires assessment, entrapment risk review, informed consent and the least restrictive approach.
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Clinical Care, Care Planning and the MDS
When is a pressure injury considered unavoidable?
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Clinical Care, Care Planning and the MDS
When it develops despite evaluation of the resident's condition and risk factors, defined goals and interventions that fit the resident's needs, and monitoring and revision of the approach.
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Clinical Care, Care Planning and the MDS
When may a facility use an indwelling urinary catheter?
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Clinical Care, Care Planning and the MDS
Only when the resident's clinical condition shows it is necessary. The facility must assess, document the reason and try to remove it when possible.
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Clinical Care, Care Planning and the MDS
When may a facility use tube feeding?
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Clinical Care, Care Planning and the MDS
Only when the resident's clinical condition shows it is necessary. The facility must also work to restore the resident's ability to eat when possible.
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Clinical Care, Care Planning and the MDS
When must MDS assessments be submitted to CMS?
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Clinical Care, Care Planning and the MDS
Within 14 days after the assessment completion date, through the state's MDS submission system.
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Clinical Care, Care Planning and the MDS
When must the admission comprehensive assessment be completed?
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Clinical Care, Care Planning and the MDS
By day 14 of the resident's stay.
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Clinical Care, Care Planning and the MDS
When must the care plan be reviewed and revised?
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Clinical Care, Care Planning and the MDS
After each assessment, by the interdisciplinary team, to reflect the resident's current goals and needs.
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Clinical Care, Care Planning and the MDS
When must the comprehensive care plan be completed?
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Clinical Care, Care Planning and the MDS
Within 7 days after completion of the comprehensive assessment.
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Clinical Care, Care Planning and the MDS
When must the facility notify the physician and resident representative of a change?
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Clinical Care, Care Planning and the MDS
Immediately for an accident with injury, a significant change in condition, a need to change treatment significantly, or a decision to transfer or discharge.
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Clinical Care, Care Planning and the MDS
Which Medicare PPS MDS assessment remains under PDPM?
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Clinical Care, Care Planning and the MDS
The 5-day PPS assessment, with an ARD in the first 8 days of the stay, plus the optional Interim Payment Assessment (IPA). The 14-, 30-, 60- and 90-day PPS assessments were eliminated.
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Clinical Care, Care Planning and the MDS
Who takes part in the interdisciplinary team (IDT) for care planning?
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Clinical Care, Care Planning and the MDS
The attending physician, the registered nurse responsible for the resident, a nurse aide, a food and nutrition staff member, other disciplines as needed, and the resident and representative.
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Dementia, Behavioral Health and Palliative Care
How can a facility support grief among residents, families and staff?
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Dementia, Behavioral Health and Palliative Care
Offer memorial services, counseling and chaplain support, allow time for goodbyes, and recognize the emotional toll on caregivers.
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Dementia, Behavioral Health and Palliative Care
How does delirium differ from dementia?
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Dementia, Behavioral Health and Palliative Care
Delirium has a sudden onset, fluctuating attention and is often reversible. Dementia is gradual and progressive. Report any sudden mental status change right away.
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Dementia, Behavioral Health and Palliative Care
How should behaviors be monitored and documented?
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Dementia, Behavioral Health and Palliative Care
Record what happened, the time, possible triggers, interventions tried and the response. The care plan is updated as the picture changes.
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Dementia, Behavioral Health and Palliative Care
How should depression be addressed in a nursing home?
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Dementia, Behavioral Health and Palliative Care
Screen using the PHQ-9 in the MDS, assess for causes, involve the physician and mental health professionals, use therapy and medications as appropriate, and increase meaningful social contact.
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Dementia, Behavioral Health and Palliative Care
How should staff respond to intimacy and sexuality among residents?
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Dementia, Behavioral Health and Palliative Care
Respect privacy and the right to relationships, assess capacity to consent, protect against abuse or exploitation, and reflect decisions in the care plan.
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Dementia, Behavioral Health and Palliative Care
How should the facility handle resident-to-resident altercations?
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Dementia, Behavioral Health and Palliative Care
Separate and protect the residents, assess for injury, notify the physician and families, report and investigate as possible abuse, and revise care plans.
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Dementia, Behavioral Health and Palliative Care
What are alternatives to restraints?
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Dementia, Behavioral Health and Palliative Care
Address unmet needs, adjust seating, lighting and routine, use low beds and sensor alarms where appropriate, increase supervision and offer meaningful activity.
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Dementia, Behavioral Health and Palliative Care
What are the four Medicare hospice levels of care?
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Dementia, Behavioral Health and Palliative Care
Routine home care, continuous home care, inpatient respite care and general inpatient care.
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Dementia, Behavioral Health and Palliative Care
What are the general stages of Alzheimer's disease?
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Dementia, Behavioral Health and Palliative Care
Early (mild) with memory lapses, middle (moderate) with confusion and need for help with daily tasks, and late (severe) with total care needs and loss of communication.
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Dementia, Behavioral Health and Palliative Care
What are the main types of dementia?
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Dementia, Behavioral Health and Palliative Care
Alzheimer's disease, vascular dementia, Lewy body dementia and frontotemporal dementia. Mixed dementia combines more than one type.
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Dementia, Behavioral Health and Palliative Care
What are the Medicare hospice eligibility requirements?
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Dementia, Behavioral Health and Palliative Care
A physician certifies a terminal illness with a life expectancy of six months or less if the disease runs its normal course, and the resident elects hospice care.
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Dementia, Behavioral Health and Palliative Care
What communication techniques help with residents who have dementia?
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Dementia, Behavioral Health and Palliative Care
Approach from the front, use the resident's name, speak simply and slowly, give one instruction at a time, allow time, and respond to feelings rather than correcting.
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Dementia, Behavioral Health and Palliative Care
What dementia training must staff receive?
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Dementia, Behavioral Health and Palliative Care
Facilities must provide training on dementia management and resident abuse prevention as part of required staff education, appropriate to each role.
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Dementia, Behavioral Health and Palliative Care
What do federal rules require for behavioral health services?
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Dementia, Behavioral Health and Palliative Care
The facility must have enough qualified staff with the right skills to give behavioral health care, and must meet residents' mental, emotional and psychosocial needs.
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Dementia, Behavioral Health and Palliative Care
What does a Level II PASRR determination mean for the facility?
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Dementia, Behavioral Health and Palliative Care
The resident has serious mental illness or an intellectual disability needing evaluation. The facility incorporates the findings into the care plan and works with the state on needed services.
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Dementia, Behavioral Health and Palliative Care
What happens when a resident elects the Medicare hospice benefit?
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Dementia, Behavioral Health and Palliative Care
The resident gives up Medicare coverage for treatment aimed at curing the terminal illness and related conditions, but can revoke the election at any time.
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Dementia, Behavioral Health and Palliative Care
What is dementia and what is its most common cause?
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Dementia, Behavioral Health and Palliative Care
A decline in memory, thinking and function that interferes with daily life. Alzheimer's disease is the most common cause, accounting for roughly 60 to 80% of cases.
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Dementia, Behavioral Health and Palliative Care
What is elopement and how can it be reduced?
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Dementia, Behavioral Health and Palliative Care
A resident leaves the facility unsafely without supervision. Assess risk on admission, use alarms and supervision as care planned, keep identification current and review incidents.
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Dementia, Behavioral Health and Palliative Care
What is required when a nursing home resident is on hospice?
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Dementia, Behavioral Health and Palliative Care
A written agreement between the facility and the hospice. The hospice manages the terminal illness care, the facility provides room, board and personal care, and both follow a coordinated care plan.
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Dementia, Behavioral Health and Palliative Care
What is sundowning?
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Dementia, Behavioral Health and Palliative Care
Increased confusion and agitation in the late afternoon or evening. Helpful approaches include steady routines, good lighting, quiet evenings and avoiding overstimulation.
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Dementia, Behavioral Health and Palliative Care
What is the DICE approach to responsive behaviors?
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Dementia, Behavioral Health and Palliative Care
Describe the behavior, Investigate causes, Create a plan, and Evaluate results. It is a structured way to find and address triggers.
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Dementia, Behavioral Health and Palliative Care
What is the difference between palliative care and hospice?
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Dementia, Behavioral Health and Palliative Care
Palliative care relieves symptoms and can be given at any stage of serious illness with curative treatment. Hospice is comfort-focused care for people with a terminal prognosis.
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Dementia, Behavioral Health and Palliative Care
What is the FDA boxed warning for antipsychotics in dementia?
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Dementia, Behavioral Health and Palliative Care
Older adults with dementia-related psychosis who take antipsychotics have an increased risk of death. These drugs are not approved for dementia-related behaviors.
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Dementia, Behavioral Health and Palliative Care
What is trauma-informed care in a nursing home?
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Dementia, Behavioral Health and Palliative Care
Care that recognizes past trauma, such as war experience or abuse, identifies triggers, avoids retraumatizing practices and builds trust. Federal rules require it.
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Dementia, Behavioral Health and Palliative Care
What must a facility do after a resident dies?
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Dementia, Behavioral Health and Palliative Care
Notify the physician and representative, follow state and local rules for release of the body, inventory and return belongings, and convey the resident's funds within 30 days as the rules require.
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Dementia, Behavioral Health and Palliative Care
What person-centered approaches are used in dementia care?
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Dementia, Behavioral Health and Palliative Care
Validation, reminiscence, Montessori-based activities and Namaste care. All start with the resident's history, abilities and preferences.
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Dementia, Behavioral Health and Palliative Care
What should a facility consider for a secured memory care unit?
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Dementia, Behavioral Health and Palliative Care
Disclosure of unit features and consent, safety and elopement protections, staff dementia training, meaningful activity and compliance with state law.
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Dementia, Behavioral Health and Palliative Care
What should be done when a resident shows suicide risk?
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Dementia, Behavioral Health and Palliative Care
Stay with the resident, remove hazards, notify the nurse and physician at once, arrange a mental health evaluation, and update the care plan and supervision level.
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Dementia, Behavioral Health and Palliative Care
What should be tried before using medication for dementia-related behaviors?
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Dementia, Behavioral Health and Palliative Care
Look for causes such as pain or unmet needs, adjust the environment and routine, and use individualized non-drug approaches like music, activity and calm communication.
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Dementia, Behavioral Health and Palliative Care
Why must code status be clearly documented?
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Dementia, Behavioral Health and Palliative Care
Staff must know and honour the resident's wishes in an emergency. Orders such as DNR must be visible, consistent across records and reviewed when wishes or conditions change.
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Dietary, Rehab, Social Services and Activities
How are contractures prevented?
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Dietary, Rehab, Social Services and Activities
Range-of-motion exercise, proper positioning, splints when ordered, mobility programs and timely therapy referral.
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Dietary, Rehab, Social Services and Activities
How do PT, OT and SLP differ?
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Dietary, Rehab, Social Services and Activities
Physical therapy addresses strength, mobility and balance. Occupational therapy addresses daily living skills and fine motor function. Speech-language pathology addresses communication, cognition and swallowing.
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Dietary, Rehab, Social Services and Activities
How does a facility monitor nutritional status?
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Dietary, Rehab, Social Services and Activities
Assess on admission, weigh on a schedule, review intake and preferences, and use fortified foods, supplements and feeding help when weight or intake drops.
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Dietary, Rehab, Social Services and Activities
How does the MDS capture resident preferences for routines and activities?
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Dietary, Rehab, Social Services and Activities
Section F records preferences such as wake time, bathing, music, reading and religious activities. The care plan then reflects them.
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Dietary, Rehab, Social Services and Activities
How is dishware sanitized?
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Dietary, Rehab, Social Services and Activities
By heat, with a final rinse at about 180 degrees F or the machine maker's setting, or by chemicals used at the concentration on the label. Test and record results.
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Dietary, Rehab, Social Services and Activities
How much fluid does a resident typically need?
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Dietary, Rehab, Social Services and Activities
About 1,500 mL a day is a common baseline, adjusted for each resident's condition and orders. The facility must provide enough fluid to prevent dehydration.
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Dietary, Rehab, Social Services and Activities
How should a facility support residents who want to vote?
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Dietary, Rehab, Social Services and Activities
Provide voter registration help, absentee ballot access, transportation or on-site voting, and privacy. Do not influence the resident's choices.
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Dietary, Rehab, Social Services and Activities
What are paid feeding assistants?
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Dietary, Rehab, Social Services and Activities
Non-nursing staff who complete a state-approved course of at least 8 hours and help residents without complex feeding problems under the supervision of a nurse.
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Dietary, Rehab, Social Services and Activities
What are signs of dysphagia?
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Dietary, Rehab, Social Services and Activities
Coughing or choking with meals, a wet or gurgly voice, food pocketing, drooling, repeated chest infections and weight loss. Refer for a swallowing evaluation.
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Dietary, Rehab, Social Services and Activities
What are the main duties of social services?
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Dietary, Rehab, Social Services and Activities
Address residents' psychosocial needs, support adjustment to admission, plan discharge, help with advance directives, advocate, support families and help prevent abuse.
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Dietary, Rehab, Social Services and Activities
What are the principles of HACCP?
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Dietary, Rehab, Social Services and Activities
Hazard Analysis and Critical Control Points. Identify hazards, set critical control points and limits, monitor, take corrective action, verify, and keep records.
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Dietary, Rehab, Social Services and Activities
What are the qualifications for nutrition leadership in a nursing home?
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Dietary, Rehab, Social Services and Activities
A qualified dietitian or other clinically qualified nutrition professional full-time, part-time or by consultant. If not full-time, a certified director of food and nutrition services must run the department.
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Dietary, Rehab, Social Services and Activities
What are the requirements for the activities program?
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Dietary, Rehab, Social Services and Activities
A person-centered program based on assessment and the care plan that supports independence, includes options for residents with dementia or who are bedbound, and is led by a qualified professional.
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Dietary, Rehab, Social Services and Activities
What are the rules for food storage?
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Dietary, Rehab, Social Services and Activities
Buy from approved sources, store dry goods off the floor, use first in first out, label and date items, and discard ready-to-eat refrigerated food after 7 days.
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Dietary, Rehab, Social Services and Activities
What are the rules on meal frequency and spacing?
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Dietary, Rehab, Social Services and Activities
At least three meals a day at regular times. No more than 14 hours between a substantial evening meal and breakfast, or up to 16 hours if a bedtime snack is offered.
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Dietary, Rehab, Social Services and Activities
What are the safe food temperatures?
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Dietary, Rehab, Social Services and Activities
Keep cold foods at 41 degrees F or below and hot foods at 135 degrees F or above. The danger zone is between 41 and 135 degrees F.
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Dietary, Rehab, Social Services and Activities
What did the Jimmo v. Sebelius settlement clarify?
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Dietary, Rehab, Social Services and Activities
Medicare coverage of skilled care depends on the need for skilled services, not on whether the resident is likely to improve. Skilled maintenance therapy can be covered.
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Dietary, Rehab, Social Services and Activities
What does a speech-language pathologist do about swallowing?
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Dietary, Rehab, Social Services and Activities
Evaluates swallowing, recommends diet textures and liquids and safe feeding strategies, and trains staff. The SLP also treats communication and cognition.
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Dietary, Rehab, Social Services and Activities
What is a liberalized diet and why is it encouraged?
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Dietary, Rehab, Social Services and Activities
A diet with fewer restrictions, such as less limited sodium or sugar when appropriate. It helps intake, preferences and quality of life in older residents.
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Dietary, Rehab, Social Services and Activities
What is the IDDSI framework?
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Dietary, Rehab, Social Services and Activities
The International Dysphagia Diet Standardisation Initiative, a global scale of levels 0 to 7 that describes food textures and drink thickness for people with swallowing problems.
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Dietary, Rehab, Social Services and Activities
What limit applies to group and concurrent therapy under PDPM?
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Dietary, Rehab, Social Services and Activities
Combined group and concurrent therapy is limited to 25% of a resident's therapy minutes in each discipline.
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Dietary, Rehab, Social Services and Activities
What must a facility do for a family group?
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Dietary, Rehab, Social Services and Activities
Allow a family council to meet, provide private space and a staff liaison on request, and respond to the group's concerns.
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Dietary, Rehab, Social Services and Activities
What must a therapy plan of care include?
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Dietary, Rehab, Social Services and Activities
Diagnoses, measurable goals, type, amount, frequency and duration of treatment, and physician certification. It is reviewed and recertified as needed.
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Dietary, Rehab, Social Services and Activities
What must nursing home menus provide?
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Dietary, Rehab, Social Services and Activities
Menus that meet residents' nutritional needs, follow the written menu, are prepared in advance, reflect cultural and religious preferences, and are reviewed by the dietitian.
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Dietary, Rehab, Social Services and Activities
What rights apply to religious and spiritual practice?
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Dietary, Rehab, Social Services and Activities
Residents may practice their faith, receive visits from clergy, and have services arranged. Staff must respect beliefs and avoid pressure.
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Dietary, Rehab, Social Services and Activities
What should a facility policy on animals include?
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Dietary, Rehab, Social Services and Activities
Vaccination and health records, supervision, allergy and infection control checks, resident consent, and areas where animals are not allowed, such as food preparation.
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Dietary, Rehab, Social Services and Activities
What should a volunteer program include?
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Dietary, Rehab, Social Services and Activities
Screening and background checks, orientation on resident rights and confidentiality, defined roles, supervision and infection control training.
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Dietary, Rehab, Social Services and Activities
What standards apply to the food that is served?
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Dietary, Rehab, Social Services and Activities
Food must be palatable, attractive and served at a safe and appetizing temperature. Residents can request substitutes of similar nutritional value.
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Dietary, Rehab, Social Services and Activities
What types of activities should a program include?
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Dietary, Rehab, Social Services and Activities
Social, spiritual, physical, creative and cognitive activities, outings, intergenerational events and one-to-one in-room visits.
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Dietary, Rehab, Social Services and Activities
When must a nursing home employ a full-time social worker?
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Dietary, Rehab, Social Services and Activities
When the facility has more than 120 beds. The social worker should have a bachelor's degree in social work or a related field and a year of healthcare experience.
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Dietary, Rehab, Social Services and Activities
Which food workers must be excluded from work?
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Dietary, Rehab, Social Services and Activities
Employees with vomiting, diarrhea, jaundice or sore throat with fever. Follow the health department rules and facility policy for return to work.
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Dietary, Rehab, Social Services and Activities
Which laws prohibit discrimination in nursing homes?
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Dietary, Rehab, Social Services and Activities
Title VI of the Civil Rights Act, Section 504 of the Rehabilitation Act, the Americans with Disabilities Act, the Age Discrimination Act and Section 1557 of the ACA, covering race, national origin, disability, age and sex.
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Dietary, Rehab, Social Services and Activities
Which rehabilitative services must a facility provide?
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Dietary, Rehab, Social Services and Activities
Physical, occupational and speech therapy and other specialized services when ordered by a physician and needed under the care plan, either directly or through arrangement.
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Dietary, Rehab, Social Services and Activities
Who may order a therapeutic diet?
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Dietary, Rehab, Social Services and Activities
The attending physician, or another qualified professional if state law and facility policy allow. The diet must be on the menu and follow an approved diet manual.
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Dietary, Rehab, Social Services and Activities
Why are therapy contracts a compliance risk?
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Dietary, Rehab, Social Services and Activities
Payment-driven or excessive therapy can lead to false claims and OIG scrutiny. Administrators must oversee medical necessity and keep clinical decisions with therapists.
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Financial Management and Reimbursement
How are accounts receivable days calculated?
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Financial Management and Reimbursement
Net accounts receivable divided by average daily net revenue. Lower is better, and many facilities target about 30 to 45 days.
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Financial Management and Reimbursement
How are Medicare SNF payment rates updated?
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Financial Management and Reimbursement
The SNF Prospective Payment System sets a daily rate adjusted for case mix and local wages. CMS updates the rates each year for the federal fiscal year beginning October 1.
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Financial Management and Reimbursement
How does long-term care insurance work for a resident?
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Financial Management and Reimbursement
It pays a daily benefit up to a limit after an elimination period, once the policyholder meets benefit triggers. Verify benefits and submit claims with documentation.
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Financial Management and Reimbursement
How is break-even occupancy calculated?
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Financial Management and Reimbursement
Fixed costs divided by the contribution margin per resident day, which is revenue per day minus variable cost per day.
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Financial Management and Reimbursement
How is Medicaid nursing home care funded?
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Financial Management and Reimbursement
Jointly by the federal government and the state. Medicaid is the largest payer of long-term nursing home care, and each state sets its own rates within federal rules.
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Financial Management and Reimbursement
How is occupancy calculated?
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Financial Management and Reimbursement
Resident days divided by available bed days over a period, shown as a percentage.
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Financial Management and Reimbursement
How many days does Medicare Part A cover in a skilled nursing facility?
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Financial Management and Reimbursement
Up to 100 days per benefit period. Days 1 to 20 have no coinsurance, days 21 to 100 require a daily coinsurance, and coverage ends after day 100.
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Financial Management and Reimbursement
What are common liquidity measures?
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Financial Management and Reimbursement
The current ratio, which is current assets divided by current liabilities, and days cash on hand, which is cash divided by daily operating expenses.
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Financial Management and Reimbursement
What are key internal controls for a facility business office?
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Financial Management and Reimbursement
Segregation of duties, dual signatures, regular bank reconciliations, controlled access to cash and records, and independent review or audit.
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Financial Management and Reimbursement
What are operating margin, EBITDA and EBITDAR?
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Financial Management and Reimbursement
Operating margin is operating income divided by revenue. EBITDA is earnings before interest, taxes, depreciation and amortization. EBITDAR also adds back rent and is used for leased facilities.
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Financial Management and Reimbursement
What are the levels of Medicare claim appeals?
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Financial Management and Reimbursement
Redetermination by the contractor, reconsideration by a qualified independent contractor, an administrative law judge hearing, the Medicare Appeals Council and federal court.
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Financial Management and Reimbursement
What are the main types of budgets?
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Financial Management and Reimbursement
The operating budget for revenue and expenses, the capital budget for major purchases, and the cash budget for the timing of receipts and payments.
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Financial Management and Reimbursement
What are the steps of the revenue cycle?
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Financial Management and Reimbursement
Verify eligibility and authorization, admit, document and code care, bill, collect payment, work denials and report results.
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Financial Management and Reimbursement
What are the three main financial statements?
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Financial Management and Reimbursement
The balance sheet, where assets equal liabilities plus equity, the income statement and the statement of cash flows.
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Financial Management and Reimbursement
What happens if a SNF does not meet quality reporting requirements?
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Financial Management and Reimbursement
The SNF Quality Reporting Program applies a 2 percentage point reduction to the facility's annual Medicare payment update for failing to report required data.
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Financial Management and Reimbursement
What is a dual eligible resident?
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Financial Management and Reimbursement
A person covered by both Medicare and Medicaid. Medicaid may pay Medicare coinsurance for days 21 to 100, subject to state rules.
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Financial Management and Reimbursement
What is a HUD Section 232 loan?
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Financial Management and Reimbursement
A federally insured mortgage for building, buying or refinancing nursing homes and other care facilities, with long terms and fixed rates.
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Financial Management and Reimbursement
What is a provider tax or bed tax?
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Financial Management and Reimbursement
A state assessment on facilities used to draw federal Medicaid matching funds. States often return the funds to facilities through higher rates.
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Financial Management and Reimbursement
What is accrual accounting?
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Financial Management and Reimbursement
Revenue is recorded when earned and expenses when incurred, regardless of cash timing. It is required by GAAP for most providers.
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Financial Management and Reimbursement
What is an interrupted stay under PDPM?
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Financial Management and Reimbursement
If a resident is discharged and returns to the same facility within the 3-day interrupted stay window, counted from the day of discharge, the stay is treated as continuous for payment.
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Financial Management and Reimbursement
What is budget variance analysis?
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Financial Management and Reimbursement
Comparing actual results to the budget, labelling differences favorable or unfavorable and investigating the causes to take corrective action.
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Financial Management and Reimbursement
What is Medicaid estate recovery?
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Financial Management and Reimbursement
States must seek repayment of long-term care costs from the estates of Medicaid recipients aged 55 or older, with protections for a surviving spouse or dependent child.
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Financial Management and Reimbursement
What is Medicare bad debt?
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Financial Management and Reimbursement
Uncollectible Medicare deductibles and coinsurance that a provider has made reasonable efforts to collect. Medicare reimburses a percentage of allowable bad debt, currently 65% for SNFs.
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Financial Management and Reimbursement
What is patient liability or share of cost for a Medicaid resident?
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Financial Management and Reimbursement
The part of the resident's income that must go toward the cost of care each month, after allowed deductions such as the personal needs allowance.
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Financial Management and Reimbursement
What is payer mix and why does it matter?
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Financial Management and Reimbursement
The share of resident days paid by each source, such as Medicare, Medicaid, managed care and private pay. It strongly influences revenue and margin.
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Financial Management and Reimbursement
What is revenue and cost per patient day?
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Financial Management and Reimbursement
Total revenue or total cost divided by resident days. They are used to compare performance across periods and facilities.
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Financial Management and Reimbursement
What is SNF consolidated billing?
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Financial Management and Reimbursement
The facility bills Medicare for nearly all services given to a Part A resident, including therapy and supplies. Outside suppliers are paid by the facility, with limited exclusions such as certain physician services.
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Financial Management and Reimbursement
What is the Anti-Kickback Statute?
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Financial Management and Reimbursement
A federal law that makes it a crime to offer or accept anything of value to induce referrals of federal health program business, with limited safe harbors.
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Financial Management and Reimbursement
What is the debt service coverage ratio (DSCR)?
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Financial Management and Reimbursement
Net operating income divided by annual debt payments. Lenders usually require a ratio above 1.2 or higher.
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Financial Management and Reimbursement
What is the difference between fixed and variable costs?
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Financial Management and Reimbursement
Fixed costs, such as rent and insurance, stay the same as census changes. Variable costs, such as food and supplies, change with the number of residents.
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Financial Management and Reimbursement
What is the False Claims Act?
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Financial Management and Reimbursement
A federal law that penalizes knowingly submitting false claims for payment, with treble damages. It allows whistleblowers (qui tam) to sue on behalf of the government.
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Financial Management and Reimbursement
What is the largest operating expense for a nursing home?
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Financial Management and Reimbursement
Labor, which usually accounts for more than half of operating costs. Overtime, agency use and turnover are major cost drivers.
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Financial Management and Reimbursement
What is the Medicare cost report?
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Financial Management and Reimbursement
An annual report of costs and statistics that certified providers must file, generally within 5 months after the fiscal year ends. It is used to settle payments.
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Financial Management and Reimbursement
What is the PDPM variable per diem adjustment?
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Financial Management and Reimbursement
The non-therapy ancillary component is paid at three times the rate for the first 3 days. The PT and OT components fall by 2% every 7 days beginning on day 21.
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Financial Management and Reimbursement
What is the personal needs allowance?
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Financial Management and Reimbursement
A small monthly amount of income that a Medicaid nursing home resident may keep for personal use. The federal minimum is $30 and states may set more.
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Financial Management and Reimbursement
What is the SNF Value-Based Purchasing program?
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Financial Management and Reimbursement
A Medicare program that withholds a portion of payments and returns incentives to facilities based on performance, such as avoiding potentially preventable readmissions.
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Financial Management and Reimbursement
What must be true for Medicare Part A to cover skilled care?
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Financial Management and Reimbursement
A physician orders it, the resident needs daily skilled nursing or skilled rehabilitation, and the care is for a condition treated in the qualifying stay or arising during the SNF stay.
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Financial Management and Reimbursement
What payment methods do state Medicaid programs use for nursing homes?
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Financial Management and Reimbursement
Prospective cost-based rates, flat rates and case-mix-adjusted rates, sometimes with add-ons for quality or special populations.
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Financial Management and Reimbursement
What protections does Medicaid give a spouse living in the community?
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Financial Management and Reimbursement
Spousal impoverishment rules let the community spouse keep a share of resources and a minimum monthly income allowance so the couple is not left destitute.
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Financial Management and Reimbursement
What should a facility manage in managed care and Medicare Advantage contracts?
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Financial Management and Reimbursement
Rates, authorization requirements, notification rules, timely filing and denials. Track and appeal denials and verify coverage before admission.
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Financial Management and Reimbursement
What veterans programs may help pay for nursing home care?
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Financial Management and Reimbursement
State veterans homes, VA community nursing home contracts and the VA Aid and Attendance pension for eligible veterans and surviving spouses.
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Financial Management and Reimbursement
When does a Medicare benefit period end?
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Financial Management and Reimbursement
After the beneficiary has been out of any hospital or skilled nursing facility for 60 consecutive days. A new benefit period then begins with the next inpatient stay.
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Financial Management and Reimbursement
Why does Medicare not pay for custodial care?
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Financial Management and Reimbursement
Custodial care is help with daily activities, such as bathing and dressing, that does not need skilled personnel. Medicare does not cover it when it is the only care needed.
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Financial Management and Reimbursement
Why does the primary diagnosis code matter under PDPM?
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Financial Management and Reimbursement
The ICD-10 code assigns the resident's clinical category, which sets PT and OT payment. Inaccurate coding can result in underpayment or an overpayment finding.
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Financial Management and Reimbursement
Why reconcile resident trust funds every month?
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Financial Management and Reimbursement
To confirm each resident's balance matches the bank, detect errors or theft early, and produce accurate quarterly statements.
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Health Information, HIPAA and Technology
How can telehealth support nursing home care?
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Health Information, HIPAA and Technology
It allows physician, specialist and behavioral health visits by video. Ensure privacy, equipment, resident consent and compliance with current payer and state rules.
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Health Information, HIPAA and Technology
How long must medical records be kept?
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Health Information, HIPAA and Technology
The period set by state law, or 5 years from discharge if the state has no rule. For minors, 3 years after reaching legal age under state law.
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Health Information, HIPAA and Technology
How should a facility prepare for ransomware and system outages?
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Health Information, HIPAA and Technology
Keep tested offline backups, have a contingency and downtime plan, train staff to spot phishing, and have an incident response plan.
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Health Information, HIPAA and Technology
How should an error in a record be corrected?
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Health Information, HIPAA and Technology
On paper, draw a single line through it, initial and date it. In electronic records, add an addendum. Never erase, hide or alter entries.
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Health Information, HIPAA and Technology
What are downtime procedures for electronic records?
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Health Information, HIPAA and Technology
Backup paper forms and processes, such as printed medication records and care plans, to keep care safe during an outage, then entry of data after recovery.
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Health Information, HIPAA and Technology
What are examples of technical safeguards for electronic records?
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Health Information, HIPAA and Technology
Unique user IDs, role-based access, encryption, audit logs, automatic logoff and secure backups.
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Health Information, HIPAA and Technology
What are the breach notification timelines?
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Health Information, HIPAA and Technology
Notify affected individuals without unreasonable delay and within 60 days of discovery. Notify HHS, and the media if a breach affects over 500 residents of a state.
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Health Information, HIPAA and Technology
What are the main HIPAA rules for a nursing home?
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Health Information, HIPAA and Technology
The Privacy Rule, the Security Rule and the Breach Notification Rule. The HITECH Act strengthened enforcement and penalties.
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Health Information, HIPAA and Technology
What are the principles of good documentation?
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Health Information, HIPAA and Technology
Timely, accurate, factual, objective, complete, legible and signed with date and time. Late entries are labelled as late.
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Health Information, HIPAA and Technology
What are the rights to amend records and to an accounting of disclosures?
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Health Information, HIPAA and Technology
Residents may ask for corrections to their records and for a list of certain disclosures of their PHI made outside treatment, payment and operations.
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Health Information, HIPAA and Technology
What are the rules on photos and social media involving residents?
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Health Information, HIPAA and Technology
Staff must not take or share photos or videos of residents that humiliate or demean them, and any sharing needs consent. Violations can be abuse and a privacy breach.
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Health Information, HIPAA and Technology
What are the three types of Security Rule safeguards?
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Health Information, HIPAA and Technology
Administrative, physical and technical safeguards, supported by a required risk analysis and risk management plan.
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Health Information, HIPAA and Technology
What does a resident's medical record contain?
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Health Information, HIPAA and Technology
Identification, admission records, assessments such as the MDS, care plans, physician orders, progress notes, medication and treatment records, test results and discharge information.
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Health Information, HIPAA and Technology
What does the federal nursing home rule say about access to records?
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Health Information, HIPAA and Technology
Residents may inspect their records within 24 hours of a request, excluding weekends and holidays, and get copies within 2 working days of a request.
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Health Information, HIPAA and Technology
What HIPAA roles and training must a facility have?
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Health Information, HIPAA and Technology
A designated privacy officer and security officer, written policies and training for all staff when hired and as policies change.
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Health Information, HIPAA and Technology
What is a Notice of Privacy Practices?
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Health Information, HIPAA and Technology
A document explaining how PHI is used and the resident's rights. Give it at first service, make a good-faith effort to get written acknowledgment and post it.
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Health Information, HIPAA and Technology
What is interoperability and a health information exchange?
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Health Information, HIPAA and Technology
Interoperability lets different systems share data securely. A health information exchange moves records among providers to improve transitions of care.
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Health Information, HIPAA and Technology
What is protected health information (PHI)?
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Health Information, HIPAA and Technology
Individually identifiable health information, including identifiers like name, address and dates, held or sent by a covered entity or business associate in any form.
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Health Information, HIPAA and Technology
What is the difference between a covered entity and a business associate?
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Health Information, HIPAA and Technology
A covered entity is a health care provider, plan or clearinghouse. A business associate handles PHI for it and must sign a business associate agreement.
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Health Information, HIPAA and Technology
What is the minimum necessary standard?
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Health Information, HIPAA and Technology
Use, disclose and request only the PHI needed for the purpose. It does not apply to treatment disclosures between providers.
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Health Information, HIPAA and Technology
What issues arise with cameras in resident rooms?
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Health Information, HIPAA and Technology
Consent of the resident and roommate, privacy, notice and state law. Some states have electronic monitoring statutes, so follow them and facility policy.
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Health Information, HIPAA and Technology
What must a valid HIPAA authorization contain?
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Health Information, HIPAA and Technology
A description of the information, who may disclose it and who will receive it, the purpose, an expiration date, and the resident's signature and date.
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Health Information, HIPAA and Technology
When is a written authorization required under HIPAA?
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Health Information, HIPAA and Technology
For uses and disclosures outside treatment, payment and operations, such as marketing, sale of PHI and psychotherapy notes.
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Health Information, HIPAA and Technology
When may PHI be shared without a resident's authorization?
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Health Information, HIPAA and Technology
For treatment, payment and health care operations, and for certain public health, legal and oversight purposes allowed by the Privacy Rule.
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Health Information, HIPAA and Technology
Who is a resident's personal representative for HIPAA?
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Health Information, HIPAA and Technology
A person with legal authority to act for the resident, such as a health care agent or guardian. State law and documents decide the scope.
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Housekeeping, Laundry, Maintenance and Environmental Infection Control
How is infectious waste handled?
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Housekeeping, Laundry, Maintenance and Environmental Infection Control
Use labelled biohazard bags and puncture-resistant sharps containers, replace sharps containers when about three-quarters full, and dispose through licensed services under state rules.
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Housekeeping, Laundry, Maintenance and Environmental Infection Control
How should a blood or body fluid spill be cleaned?
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Housekeeping, Laundry, Maintenance and Environmental Infection Control
Wear protective equipment, absorb the spill, clean with detergent, then disinfect with an EPA-registered product or freshly made bleach solution as policy directs.
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Housekeeping, Laundry, Maintenance and Environmental Infection Control
How should housekeeping chemicals and carts be secured?
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Housekeeping, Laundry, Maintenance and Environmental Infection Control
Keep chemicals in labelled containers and locked rooms, and keep carts locked or attended so residents with cognitive impairment cannot reach them.
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Housekeeping, Laundry, Maintenance and Environmental Infection Control
How should soiled linen be handled?
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Housekeeping, Laundry, Maintenance and Environmental Infection Control
Handle as little as possible, bag it at the point of use without shaking or sorting in resident rooms, and treat all soiled linen as potentially infectious.
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Housekeeping, Laundry, Maintenance and Environmental Infection Control
How should water damage and mold be handled?
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Housekeeping, Laundry, Maintenance and Environmental Infection Control
Fix leaks quickly, dry affected materials within 24 to 48 hours, replace material that cannot be dried, and follow ICRA controls while remediating.
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Housekeeping, Laundry, Maintenance and Environmental Infection Control
In what order should rooms be cleaned?
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Housekeeping, Laundry, Maintenance and Environmental Infection Control
From clean to dirty and from high to low, so dirt and germs do not spread to cleaned areas.
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Housekeeping, Laundry, Maintenance and Environmental Infection Control
What are the laundry washing standards for killing germs?
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Housekeeping, Laundry, Maintenance and Environmental Infection Control
Hot water at about 160 degrees F for at least 25 minutes, or low-temperature washing with the proper chemicals, following the manufacturer's directions.
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Housekeeping, Laundry, Maintenance and Environmental Infection Control
What does the federal rule require of housekeeping and maintenance?
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Housekeeping, Laundry, Maintenance and Environmental Infection Control
Services necessary to keep the interior sanitary, orderly and comfortable for residents, and to maintain the building and equipment in safe condition.
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Housekeeping, Laundry, Maintenance and Environmental Infection Control
What is terminal cleaning?
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Housekeeping, Laundry, Maintenance and Environmental Infection Control
Thorough cleaning and disinfection of a room after a resident leaves or when isolation ends, covering all surfaces, equipment and the bathroom.
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Housekeeping, Laundry, Maintenance and Environmental Infection Control
What is the correct laundry flow?
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Housekeeping, Laundry, Maintenance and Environmental Infection Control
One-way from dirty to clean with separate soiled and clean areas. Clean linen is covered and kept away from soiled items.
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Housekeeping, Laundry, Maintenance and Environmental Infection Control
Which surfaces are high-touch and how often should they be cleaned?
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Housekeeping, Laundry, Maintenance and Environmental Infection Control
Bed rails, call buttons, door handles, light switches and handrails. They should be cleaned and disinfected often, at least daily and more during outbreaks.
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Housekeeping, Laundry, Maintenance and Environmental Infection Control
Why label resident clothing?
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Housekeeping, Laundry, Maintenance and Environmental Infection Control
To prevent loss and mix-ups, protect dignity and reduce complaints. Keep an inventory and a process for lost items.
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Housekeeping, Laundry, Maintenance and Environmental Infection Control
Why must disinfectants be EPA-registered and used by label?
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Housekeeping, Laundry, Maintenance and Environmental Infection Control
The label gives approved uses, dilution and the contact (wet) time needed to kill germs. Using it incorrectly reduces effectiveness and can harm staff and residents.
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Housekeeping, Laundry, Maintenance and Environmental Infection Control
Why must dryer lint traps and vents be cleaned regularly?
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Housekeeping, Laundry, Maintenance and Environmental Infection Control
Lint is a major cause of laundry fires. Clean lint traps after each load and have vents and ducts cleaned on schedule.
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Housekeeping, Laundry, Maintenance and Environmental Infection Control
Why use color-coded cleaning cloths and mops?
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Housekeeping, Laundry, Maintenance and Environmental Infection Control
To prevent cross-contamination between areas such as bathrooms and resident rooms or kitchens.
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Human Resources and Staffing
How can a facility reduce workplace violence?
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Human Resources and Staffing
Assess risks, train staff in de-escalation and dementia care, use reporting systems, support injured staff and review incidents to adjust care plans.
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Human Resources and Staffing
How does staffing affect Care Compare ratings?
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Human Resources and Staffing
The staffing rating uses PBJ data, including nurse staffing hours, weekend staffing and turnover. Poor staffing can lower the overall star rating.
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Human Resources and Staffing
How does unemployment insurance affect employers?
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Human Resources and Staffing
Employers pay state unemployment taxes and respond to claims. Accurate documentation of the reason for separation helps resolve claims.
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Human Resources and Staffing
How should personnel records be kept?
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Human Resources and Staffing
Keep personnel files separate from medical and I-9 files, limit access, follow retention requirements and protect confidentiality.
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Human Resources and Staffing
How should the facility track professional licenses and certifications?
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Human Resources and Staffing
Verify at hire with the issuing board, record expiration dates, monitor renewals and remove staff from duties that need a lapsed credential.
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Human Resources and Staffing
What are common drug testing situations for employers?
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Human Resources and Staffing
Pre-employment, post-accident, reasonable suspicion and random testing where policy and state law allow. Apply policy consistently.
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Human Resources and Staffing
What are OSHA injury reporting rules?
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Human Resources and Staffing
Report a work-related fatality within 8 hours and a hospitalization, amputation or loss of an eye within 24 hours. Keep injury and illness logs.
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Human Resources and Staffing
What are the basic overtime rules under the FLSA?
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Human Resources and Staffing
Non-exempt employees must be paid at least one and a half times the regular rate for hours over 40 in a workweek, and employers must keep accurate time records.
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Human Resources and Staffing
What are the elements of a compliance and ethics program?
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Human Resources and Staffing
Written standards, high-level oversight, care in delegating authority, communication and training, monitoring and a reporting system, consistent enforcement and response to violations.
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Human Resources and Staffing
What are the steps of progressive discipline?
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Human Resources and Staffing
Usually a verbal warning, written warning, suspension and then termination, with documentation and consistent application. Serious misconduct may skip steps.
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Human Resources and Staffing
What biases affect performance appraisals?
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Human Resources and Staffing
Halo and horn effects, recency, central tendency and leniency. Clear criteria and regular feedback reduce bias.
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Human Resources and Staffing
What does a collective bargaining agreement cover?
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Human Resources and Staffing
Wages, hours and working conditions, a grievance and arbitration process and a management rights clause. Managers must apply it consistently.
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Human Resources and Staffing
What does at-will employment mean and what are the limits?
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Human Resources and Staffing
Either party may end employment at any time for any lawful reason. Exceptions include discrimination, retaliation, public policy and contract terms.
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Human Resources and Staffing
What does COBRA provide?
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Human Resources and Staffing
Employees and families may keep employer group health coverage, at their own cost, for a limited time after events such as job loss, in employers with 20 or more employees.
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Human Resources and Staffing
What does the ADA require of employers?
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Human Resources and Staffing
No discrimination against qualified people with disabilities and reasonable accommodation unless it causes undue hardship. It applies to employers with 15 or more employees.
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Human Resources and Staffing
What does the Age Discrimination in Employment Act protect?
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Human Resources and Staffing
Workers aged 40 and older from age-based discrimination. It applies to employers with 20 or more employees.
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Human Resources and Staffing
What does the Fair Credit Reporting Act require for background checks?
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Human Resources and Staffing
Written disclosure and the applicant's written authorization, a pre-adverse action notice with a copy of the report before rejecting, and a final adverse action notice.
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Human Resources and Staffing
What does the National Labor Relations Act protect?
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Human Resources and Staffing
Employees' right to organize and bargain collectively. Employers cannot interfere with, restrain or coerce employees, which would be an unfair labor practice.
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Human Resources and Staffing
What does the OSHA Hazard Communication Standard require?
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Human Resources and Staffing
Chemical labels, safety data sheets, a written program and staff training so workers know the hazards of chemicals they use.
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Human Resources and Staffing
What does Title VII of the Civil Rights Act prohibit?
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Human Resources and Staffing
Employment discrimination based on race, color, religion, sex (including pregnancy and sexual orientation) and national origin. It applies to employers with 15 or more employees.
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Human Resources and Staffing
What is consistent assignment?
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Human Resources and Staffing
Assigning the same caregivers to the same residents regularly. It improves relationships, quality of care and staff and resident satisfaction.
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Human Resources and Staffing
What is Payroll-Based Journal (PBJ) reporting?
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Human Resources and Staffing
Facilities submit direct care staffing hours from payroll data to CMS each quarter, due 45 days after the quarter ends.
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Human Resources and Staffing
What is sexual harassment and what must employers do?
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Human Resources and Staffing
Unwelcome conduct that creates a hostile environment or conditions job benefits on compliance. Employers need a clear policy, a complaint process and prompt investigation.
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Human Resources and Staffing
What is the 8 and 80 overtime option for residential care facilities?
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Human Resources and Staffing
By prior agreement, a 14-day period may be used so overtime is paid for hours over 8 in a day and over 80 in the 14-day period.
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Human Resources and Staffing
What is the difference between exempt and non-exempt employees?
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Human Resources and Staffing
Exempt employees meet salary and duties tests and are not owed overtime. Non-exempt employees, including most aides and nurses paid hourly, must receive overtime.
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Human Resources and Staffing
What is the Form I-9 timeline?
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Human Resources and Staffing
The employee completes Section 1 by the first day of work. The employer completes Section 2 within 3 business days of the start date after examining identity and work authorization documents.
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Human Resources and Staffing
What is the purpose of a written job description?
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Human Resources and Staffing
It defines duties, essential functions, qualifications and reporting lines. It guides hiring, evaluation, training and ADA reasonable accommodation decisions.
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Human Resources and Staffing
What is the purpose of an employee handbook?
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Human Resources and Staffing
To state policies and expectations, document acknowledgment, and clarify at-will status. It should be reviewed for legal compliance regularly.
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Human Resources and Staffing
What is workers' compensation?
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Human Resources and Staffing
No-fault insurance that pays medical costs and lost wages for work-related injuries. Return-to-work programs and safety efforts help control costs.
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Human Resources and Staffing
What protection do employees have when they report abuse or neglect?
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Human Resources and Staffing
Federal law prohibits retaliation against employees who report suspected crimes or abuse, and facilities must inform staff of their reporting rights.
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Human Resources and Staffing
What recruitment strategies work for nursing homes?
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Human Resources and Staffing
Job boards, employee referrals, partnerships with schools and training programs, community outreach, internal promotion and a strong employer reputation.
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Human Resources and Staffing
What should a facility do when using agency staff?
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Human Resources and Staffing
Verify licenses and exclusion status, orient to policies and residents, ensure competence, and manage the extra cost. Agency staff must follow the same rules.
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Human Resources and Staffing
What should an employee health program include?
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Human Resources and Staffing
Pre-employment health screening, TB testing, hepatitis B and influenza vaccination offers, exposure follow-up and rules for staying home when sick.
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Human Resources and Staffing
What should be done before terminating an employee?
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Human Resources and Staffing
Review documentation and policies, check for protected activity, consult human resources or counsel, handle final pay as state law requires, and hold the meeting respectfully.
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Human Resources and Staffing
What should new employee orientation cover?
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Human Resources and Staffing
Resident rights, abuse reporting, infection control, fire and emergency procedures, HIPAA, safety, policies and job duties.
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Human Resources and Staffing
What topics must annual staff education cover?
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Human Resources and Staffing
Abuse, neglect and exploitation, resident rights, infection control, dementia care, QAPI, compliance and ethics, and behavioral health, based on role.
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Human Resources and Staffing
Who is covered by the Family and Medical Leave Act?
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Human Resources and Staffing
Employees who have worked 12 months and 1,250 hours at a site where the employer has 50 or more employees within 75 miles. They may take up to 12 weeks of unpaid, job-protected leave a year.
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Human Resources and Staffing
Why is safe resident handling important?
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Human Resources and Staffing
Lifting and moving residents is a leading cause of staff back injuries. Programs use lifts, training and assessments to reduce injuries.
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Human Resources and Staffing
Why is staff turnover a problem and how can it be reduced?
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Human Resources and Staffing
It raises costs and harms continuity of care. Retention improves with fair pay, career ladders, flexible schedules, recognition, good supervision and consistent assignment.
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Human Resources and Staffing
Why must employers screen staff against exclusion lists?
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Human Resources and Staffing
Federal programs will not pay for services by excluded individuals. Check the OIG exclusion list and state lists at hire and regularly afterward, or risk penalties and repayment.
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Leadership, Governance, Strategy and Ethics
How can an administrator balance staffing costs with resident welfare?
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Leadership, Governance, Strategy and Ethics
Base staffing on resident needs and the facility assessment, use data to manage costs, and never reduce care below safe levels to protect margins.
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Leadership, Governance, Strategy and Ethics
How can an administrator continue professional development?
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Leadership, Governance, Strategy and Ethics
Meet licensure continuing education requirements, earn additional credentials, mentor others, join associations and attend conferences.
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Leadership, Governance, Strategy and Ethics
How can an administrator stay current with changing regulations?
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Leadership, Governance, Strategy and Ethics
Monitor CMS updates, State Operations Manual revisions, the Federal Register and state agency notices, and update policies and training promptly.
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Leadership, Governance, Strategy and Ethics
How can leaders reduce burnout and support staff well-being?
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Leadership, Governance, Strategy and Ethics
Manageable workloads, fair scheduling, recognition, supportive supervision, access to counseling and a safe, respectful workplace.
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Leadership, Governance, Strategy and Ethics
How do transformational and transactional leadership differ?
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Leadership, Governance, Strategy and Ethics
Transformational leaders inspire a shared vision and development. Transactional leaders rely on rewards, corrections and clear exchanges for performance.
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Leadership, Governance, Strategy and Ethics
How should conflicts of interest be handled?
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Leadership, Governance, Strategy and Ethics
Disclose them, step away from the decision, follow gift and vendor policies and document the resolution.
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Leadership, Governance, Strategy and Ethics
What are a board member's fiduciary duties?
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Leadership, Governance, Strategy and Ethics
Duty of care, duty of loyalty and duty of obedience to the mission and the law, all exercised in the best interest of the organization.
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Leadership, Governance, Strategy and Ethics
What are common barriers to effective communication?
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Leadership, Governance, Strategy and Ethics
Unclear messages, noise, assumptions, hierarchy, cultural and language differences and poor listening. Active listening and feedback reduce them.
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Leadership, Governance, Strategy and Ethics
What are common leadership styles?
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Leadership, Governance, Strategy and Ethics
Autocratic, democratic, laissez-faire, transformational and servant leadership. Effective leaders adapt the style to the situation and team.
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Leadership, Governance, Strategy and Ethics
What are Kotter's and Lewin's models of change?
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Leadership, Governance, Strategy and Ethics
Kotter describes eight steps beginning with creating urgency. Lewin describes three phases: unfreeze, change and refreeze.
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Leadership, Governance, Strategy and Ethics
What are SMART goals?
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Leadership, Governance, Strategy and Ethics
Goals that are Specific, Measurable, Achievable, Relevant and Time-bound.
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Leadership, Governance, Strategy and Ethics
What are the classic management functions?
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Leadership, Governance, Strategy and Ethics
Planning, organizing, staffing, directing and controlling.
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Leadership, Governance, Strategy and Ethics
What are the five conflict management styles?
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Leadership, Governance, Strategy and Ethics
Competing, collaborating, compromising, avoiding and accommodating. Collaborating usually works best for important issues.
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Leadership, Governance, Strategy and Ethics
What are the main ownership models for nursing homes?
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Leadership, Governance, Strategy and Ethics
For-profit, not-for-profit and government-owned, and independent or chain-affiliated. Ownership influences resources, governance and decision-making.
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Leadership, Governance, Strategy and Ethics
What are the perspectives of a balanced scorecard?
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Leadership, Governance, Strategy and Ethics
Financial, customer, internal processes, and learning and growth. It balances results across areas rather than only financial measures.
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Leadership, Governance, Strategy and Ethics
What are the steps of strategic planning?
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Leadership, Governance, Strategy and Ethics
Assess the environment, set mission and goals, form strategies, build action plans with owners and timelines, measure results and review the plan regularly.
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Leadership, Governance, Strategy and Ethics
What are Tuckman's stages of team development?
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Leadership, Governance, Strategy and Ethics
Forming, storming, norming, performing and adjourning.
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Leadership, Governance, Strategy and Ethics
What do professional codes of ethics for administrators address?
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Leadership, Governance, Strategy and Ethics
Honesty, resident welfare and rights, confidentiality, competence, avoiding conflicts of interest and compliance with the law. Professional bodies such as ACHCA publish codes.
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Leadership, Governance, Strategy and Ethics
What does a facility ethics committee do?
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Leadership, Governance, Strategy and Ethics
A multidisciplinary group that reviews ethical dilemmas and policy and advises staff and families. It recommends rather than decides.
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Leadership, Governance, Strategy and Ethics
What does the governing body do?
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Leadership, Governance, Strategy and Ethics
It is legally responsible for the facility, sets policies for management and operation, appoints the licensed administrator and ensures that the facility is run effectively.
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Leadership, Governance, Strategy and Ethics
What is a chain of command and span of control?
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Leadership, Governance, Strategy and Ethics
The chain of command is the line of authority and reporting. The span of control is the number of people a manager directly supervises.
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Leadership, Governance, Strategy and Ethics
What is dignity of risk?
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Leadership, Governance, Strategy and Ethics
The idea that residents have a right to make choices that carry some risk. Use negotiated risk plans that balance safety with autonomy.
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Leadership, Governance, Strategy and Ethics
What is emotional intelligence in leadership?
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Leadership, Governance, Strategy and Ethics
The ability to understand and manage one's own emotions and recognize and respond to others', including self-awareness, self-regulation, motivation, empathy and social skill.
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Leadership, Governance, Strategy and Ethics
What is Herzberg's two-factor theory of motivation?
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Leadership, Governance, Strategy and Ethics
Hygiene factors such as pay and conditions prevent dissatisfaction. Motivators such as achievement and recognition drive satisfaction.
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Leadership, Governance, Strategy and Ethics
What is organizational culture and how do leaders shape it?
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Leadership, Governance, Strategy and Ethics
Shared values, beliefs and behaviors in the workplace. Leaders shape it through what they model, reward and tolerate.
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Leadership, Governance, Strategy and Ethics
What is succession planning?
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Leadership, Governance, Strategy and Ethics
Identifying and developing future leaders so key roles can be filled smoothly and operations continue when people leave.
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Leadership, Governance, Strategy and Ethics
What is the difference between mission, vision and values?
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Leadership, Governance, Strategy and Ethics
The mission states why the organization exists. The vision describes what it hopes to become. The values are the principles that guide behavior.
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Leadership, Governance, Strategy and Ethics
What is the principle of delegation?
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Leadership, Governance, Strategy and Ethics
Assigning tasks and the authority to do them to another person. Accountability remains with the person who delegated.
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Leadership, Governance, Strategy and Ethics
What is the purpose of daily department head meetings?
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Leadership, Governance, Strategy and Ethics
To review resident status, staffing, new admissions, incidents and risks, coordinate across departments and act quickly on problems.
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Leadership, Governance, Strategy and Ethics
What is the role of the nursing home administrator?
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Leadership, Governance, Strategy and Ethics
To lead and manage the whole facility, ensuring quality care, regulatory compliance, sound finances, staffing and a safe environment, and to answer to the governing body.
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Leadership, Governance, Strategy and Ethics
What principles guide leadership during a crisis?
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Leadership, Governance, Strategy and Ethics
Act quickly on safety, communicate clearly and honestly, follow the emergency plan, support staff, document decisions and review lessons afterward.
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Leadership, Governance, Strategy and Ethics
What steps help with an ethical decision?
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Leadership, Governance, Strategy and Ethics
Identify the issue, gather facts, consider stakeholders and values, list options, decide, act and evaluate the outcome.
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Leadership, Governance, Strategy and Ethics
Which industry associations support administrators?
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Leadership, Governance, Strategy and Ethics
Groups such as AHCA/NCAL, LeadingAge and state associations provide advocacy, education and updates on regulations.
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Leadership, Governance, Strategy and Ethics
Why have a compliance hotline and a speak-up culture?
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Leadership, Governance, Strategy and Ethics
Staff and residents can report concerns confidentially or anonymously without retaliation, which helps detect and fix problems early.
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Leadership, Governance, Strategy and Ethics
Why is cultural competence important for leaders?
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Leadership, Governance, Strategy and Ethics
Residents and staff come from diverse backgrounds. Culturally responsive care, communication and policies improve outcomes, trust and satisfaction.
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Legal Issues, Liability and Insurance
Can residents sue a facility directly for violating their rights?
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Legal Issues, Liability and Insurance
Federal rules are enforced through surveys, but many states give residents a private right of action under their own resident rights statutes.
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Legal Issues, Liability and Insurance
How do Adult Protective Services and the ombudsman differ?
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Legal Issues, Liability and Insurance
Adult Protective Services investigates abuse of vulnerable adults mainly in community settings. The long-term care ombudsman advocates for residents in facilities. Facility abuse is also reported to the state survey agency.
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Legal Issues, Liability and Insurance
How do civil and criminal liability differ?
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Legal Issues, Liability and Insurance
Civil cases seek money or remedies and use a preponderance of the evidence. Criminal cases seek punishment and require proof beyond a reasonable doubt. Abuse or neglect can bring both.
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Legal Issues, Liability and Insurance
How does a person become a licensed nursing home administrator?
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Legal Issues, Liability and Insurance
Meet the state's education requirements, complete an administrator-in-training program, pass the NAB exams and any state exam, and keep up with continuing education.
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Legal Issues, Liability and Insurance
How should an administrator prepare for a deposition?
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Legal Issues, Liability and Insurance
Work with legal counsel, review relevant records without changing them, answer truthfully and only what is asked, and never alter or destroy documents.
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Legal Issues, Liability and Insurance
What are assault, battery and false imprisonment?
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Legal Issues, Liability and Insurance
Assault is a threat of harmful contact. Battery is unconsented touching. False imprisonment is unlawful confinement, which can include improper restraint.
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Legal Issues, Liability and Insurance
What are punitive damages?
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Legal Issues, Liability and Insurance
Damages awarded to punish reckless or egregious conduct, beyond compensation for losses. Some insurance policies do not cover them.
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Legal Issues, Liability and Insurance
What are the four elements of negligence?
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Legal Issues, Liability and Insurance
Duty of care, breach of that duty, causation and damages. All four must be proven.
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Legal Issues, Liability and Insurance
What are wrongful death and survival actions?
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Legal Issues, Liability and Insurance
A wrongful death claim is brought by family for their loss after a death. A survival action lets the estate pursue the claims the resident could have brought.
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Legal Issues, Liability and Insurance
What did the Cruzan case establish about treatment decisions?
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Legal Issues, Liability and Insurance
That competent persons have a constitutional right to refuse treatment and that a state may require clear and convincing evidence of an incapacitated person's wishes.
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Legal Issues, Liability and Insurance
What did the Olmstead decision establish?
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Legal Issues, Liability and Insurance
That unjustified segregation of people with disabilities is discrimination under the ADA. People should receive services in the most integrated setting appropriate to their needs.
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Legal Issues, Liability and Insurance
What does federal law require about the administrator?
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Legal Issues, Liability and Insurance
A nursing facility must be administered by a licensed nursing home administrator, who is responsible for the overall management of the facility.
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Legal Issues, Liability and Insurance
What does res ipsa loquitur mean?
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Legal Issues, Liability and Insurance
"The thing speaks for itself." Negligence is inferred when an injury would not ordinarily occur without it and the defendant controlled the cause.
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Legal Issues, Liability and Insurance
What is a litigation hold?
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Legal Issues, Liability and Insurance
A directive to preserve all records and data related to a claim or lawsuit. Destroying them can bring sanctions for spoliation.
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Legal Issues, Liability and Insurance
What is a risk management program?
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Legal Issues, Liability and Insurance
A process to identify, analyze, control and finance risks through policies, incident review, training, insurance and follow-up.
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Legal Issues, Liability and Insurance
What is a statute of limitations?
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Legal Issues, Liability and Insurance
The time limit for filing a lawsuit. It varies by state and claim type and may be extended, for example when the resident is incapacitated.
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Legal Issues, Liability and Insurance
What is defamation?
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Legal Issues, Liability and Insurance
False statements that harm someone's reputation. Libel is written and slander is spoken.
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Legal Issues, Liability and Insurance
What is negligent hiring, retention or supervision?
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Legal Issues, Liability and Insurance
The facility is liable when it hires or keeps unfit staff or fails to supervise them, and a resident is harmed as a result.
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Legal Issues, Liability and Insurance
What is respondeat superior?
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Legal Issues, Liability and Insurance
Employers are legally responsible for the negligent acts of employees committed within the scope of their employment.
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Legal Issues, Liability and Insurance
What is the difference between a guardian and an agent under a power of attorney?
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Legal Issues, Liability and Insurance
A guardian is appointed by a court for a person found incapacitated. An agent is chosen by the person through a power of attorney, and a durable power of attorney remains valid after incapacity.
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Legal Issues, Liability and Insurance
What is the difference between a health care proxy and a financial power of attorney?
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Legal Issues, Liability and Insurance
A health care proxy lets an agent make medical decisions. A financial power of attorney covers money and property. Ask for copies of each and check their scope.
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Legal Issues, Liability and Insurance
What is the difference between claims-made and occurrence policies?
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Legal Issues, Liability and Insurance
Occurrence policies cover events during the policy period regardless of when claimed. Claims-made policies cover claims filed during the policy, so tail coverage is needed after a change.
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Legal Issues, Liability and Insurance
What is the purpose of an incident report?
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Legal Issues, Liability and Insurance
To record facts of an event for quality improvement and risk management. Keep it objective and do not refer to it in the medical record.
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Legal Issues, Liability and Insurance
What is the standard of care?
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Legal Issues, Liability and Insurance
What a reasonably prudent provider would do in the same situation. Expert witnesses often testify about it.
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Legal Issues, Liability and Insurance
What types of insurance does a nursing home carry?
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Legal Issues, Liability and Insurance
General liability, professional liability, property, workers' compensation, directors and officers, cyber and umbrella or excess coverage.
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Marketing, Census and Community Relations
How can a facility differentiate its services?
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Marketing, Census and Community Relations
Develop specialty programs, such as short-stay rehabilitation, wound care, dementia care or ventilator care, supported by trained staff and good outcomes.
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Marketing, Census and Community Relations
How do hospital partnerships support census?
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Marketing, Census and Community Relations
Hospitals and accountable care organizations choose preferred post-acute partners based on star ratings, readmission rates and communication, so quality and responsiveness build referrals.
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Marketing, Census and Community Relations
How do Medicare Advantage plans affect census development?
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Marketing, Census and Community Relations
Plans decide which facilities are in network. Building contracts, meeting plan quality and communication expectations and managing authorizations help secure admissions.
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Marketing, Census and Community Relations
How does regular communication with families help the facility?
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Marketing, Census and Community Relations
Prompt updates, care conferences and a responsive point of contact build trust, reduce complaints and improve satisfaction and referrals.
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Marketing, Census and Community Relations
How should a facility handle media inquiries in a crisis?
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Marketing, Census and Community Relations
Use a designated spokesperson, give factual statements, coordinate with the corporate office and counsel, and never release protected health information.
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Marketing, Census and Community Relations
How should a facility handle online reviews?
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Marketing, Census and Community Relations
Respond promptly and professionally, thank the reviewer, offer to discuss offline and never reveal protected health information.
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Marketing, Census and Community Relations
What does a market analysis include?
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Marketing, Census and Community Relations
Local demographics, competitor strengths and weaknesses, referral patterns and a SWOT review to guide services and marketing.
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Marketing, Census and Community Relations
What does an admissions or marketing director do?
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Marketing, Census and Community Relations
Builds referral relationships, screens inquiries, coordinates assessments and admissions with clinical staff, tracks census and reports to the administrator.
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Marketing, Census and Community Relations
What does community relations involve?
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Marketing, Census and Community Relations
Open houses, speaking and education events, volunteer programs, partnerships with schools and faith groups and visibility in the local community.
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Marketing, Census and Community Relations
What ethical limits apply to marketing?
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Marketing, Census and Community Relations
Be truthful, do not guarantee outcomes, and avoid anything of value to induce referrals, which could violate the Anti-Kickback Statute. Respect resident choice.
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Marketing, Census and Community Relations
What is Care Compare and how does it affect marketing?
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Marketing, Census and Community Relations
A CMS public website with nursing home ratings. Consumers and referrers use it, so marketing must accurately reflect the facility's ratings and quality.
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Marketing, Census and Community Relations
What is census and why does it matter?
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Marketing, Census and Community Relations
Census is the number of residents in the facility. It drives revenue while many costs stay fixed, so administrators track it daily against budget.
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Marketing, Census and Community Relations
What is cost per admission?
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Marketing, Census and Community Relations
Marketing spending divided by the number of admissions it produced. It helps judge return on investment by channel.
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Marketing, Census and Community Relations
What is the goal of nursing home marketing?
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Marketing, Census and Community Relations
To build census and a strong reputation through relationships with referral sources, residents and families, while staying truthful and resident-centered.
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Marketing, Census and Community Relations
What makes a facility tour effective?
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Marketing, Census and Community Relations
Clean, odor-free spaces, friendly staff, an honest description of care, time for questions and clear next steps for admission.
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Marketing, Census and Community Relations
What strategies help manage census?
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Marketing, Census and Community Relations
Track inquiries and admissions daily, manage payer mix, shorten the time to fill vacant beds, support readmissions and keep discharges safe and planned.
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Marketing, Census and Community Relations
What tools measure resident and family satisfaction?
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Marketing, Census and Community Relations
Standardized surveys such as the Nursing Home CAHPS, plus care conferences, comment cards and resident and family councils, with results tracked and acted on.
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Marketing, Census and Community Relations
Who are the main referral sources for admissions?
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Marketing, Census and Community Relations
Hospital discharge planners, physicians, home health agencies, assisted living communities, managed care plans, accountable care organizations and families.
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Marketing, Census and Community Relations
Why is a fast response to admission inquiries important?
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Marketing, Census and Community Relations
Families and discharge planners often decide within hours. Quick answers, clear information and follow-up improve conversions.
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Marketing, Census and Community Relations
Why track inquiry-to-admission conversion?
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Marketing, Census and Community Relations
It shows which referral sources and steps work. A simple tracking system follows each lead from inquiry to tour to admission.
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Nursing Services, Medications and Infection Prevention
How do resident rights apply when a resident is on isolation?
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Nursing Services, Medications and Infection Prevention
Isolation must be no more than needed. Explain the reasons, protect dignity, provide social contact and activities, and keep the resident's other rights.
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Nursing Services, Medications and Infection Prevention
How do the scopes of practice differ among RNs, LPNs/LVNs and CNAs?
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Nursing Services, Medications and Infection Prevention
RNs assess, plan and supervise care. LPNs/LVNs give care under RN or physician direction. CNAs give basic care and observe. State nurse practice acts define each scope.
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Nursing Services, Medications and Infection Prevention
How must Schedule II controlled substances be stored?
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Nursing Services, Medications and Infection Prevention
Under double lock in a separate, permanently fixed compartment, with accurate records of receipt and disposition and counts reconciled at shift change.
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Nursing Services, Medications and Infection Prevention
How must verbal or telephone orders be handled?
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Nursing Services, Medications and Infection Prevention
A licensed nurse receives the order, reads it back to confirm it, and records it. The prescriber must authenticate it within the time frame set by state law and facility policy.
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Nursing Services, Medications and Infection Prevention
In what order is personal protective equipment put on and taken off?
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Nursing Services, Medications and Infection Prevention
Put on the gown, then mask or respirator, then eye protection, then gloves. Remove gloves first, then eye protection, then the gown, then the mask, and finish with hand hygiene.
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Nursing Services, Medications and Infection Prevention
What are enhanced barrier precautions?
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Nursing Services, Medications and Infection Prevention
Gown and glove use during high-contact care for residents with wounds, indwelling devices or multidrug-resistant organisms. They help prevent spread without full isolation.
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Nursing Services, Medications and Infection Prevention
What are key steps in outbreak response?
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Nursing Services, Medications and Infection Prevention
Identify and report to the health department, isolate or cohort residents, apply transmission-based precautions, limit movement, communicate with families and review the response afterward.
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Nursing Services, Medications and Infection Prevention
What are standard precautions?
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Nursing Services, Medications and Infection Prevention
Basic infection control for all residents: hand hygiene, gloves, gowns, masks and eye protection based on risk, safe injection practice, respiratory etiquette, and cleaning of equipment.
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Nursing Services, Medications and Infection Prevention
What are the federal nurse aide training requirements?
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Nursing Services, Medications and Infection Prevention
At least 75 hours of approved training including supervised practice, then a competency evaluation. Aides need 12 hours of in-service each year and a performance review at least every 12 months.
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Nursing Services, Medications and Infection Prevention
What are the McGeer and Loeb criteria?
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Nursing Services, Medications and Infection Prevention
McGeer criteria are surveillance definitions of infection for long-term care. Loeb minimum criteria help decide when to start antibiotics for suspected infection.
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Nursing Services, Medications and Infection Prevention
What are the most common healthcare-associated infections in nursing homes?
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Nursing Services, Medications and Infection Prevention
Urinary tract infections, respiratory infections including influenza, pneumonia and COVID-19, skin and soft tissue infections, and gastrointestinal infections such as C. difficile and norovirus.
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Nursing Services, Medications and Infection Prevention
What are the rules for general medication storage?
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Nursing Services, Medications and Infection Prevention
Locked storage, access limited to authorized staff, proper temperature, refrigerated items in a locked refrigerator at about 36 to 46 degrees F, and removal of expired or discontinued drugs.
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Nursing Services, Medications and Infection Prevention
What are transmission-based precautions?
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Nursing Services, Medications and Infection Prevention
Extra measures for known or suspected infections: contact, droplet and airborne precautions, each with specific room and protective equipment rules.
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Nursing Services, Medications and Infection Prevention
What does the consultant pharmacist do?
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Nursing Services, Medications and Infection Prevention
Reviews each resident's drug regimen at least monthly and reports irregularities to the attending physician, medical director and director of nursing. The facility must act on the report.
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Nursing Services, Medications and Infection Prevention
What does the infection prevention and control program (IPCP) require?
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Nursing Services, Medications and Infection Prevention
A written program with surveillance, prevention, outbreak control and reporting, led by a designated infection preventionist who has specialized training and is at the facility at least part-time.
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Nursing Services, Medications and Infection Prevention
What does the OSHA Bloodborne Pathogens Standard require of employers?
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Nursing Services, Medications and Infection Prevention
An exposure control plan, training, protective equipment, safe sharps, hepatitis B vaccination offered at no cost to at-risk employees, and post-exposure follow-up.
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Nursing Services, Medications and Infection Prevention
What happened to the 2024 federal minimum nurse staffing rule?
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Nursing Services, Medications and Infection Prevention
CMS repealed it by interim final rule in December 2025, effective February 2, 2026. The 3.48 hours per resident day and 24/7 RN requirements are gone. RN 8 hours a day, a full-time RN DON and the facility assessment remain. Verify current status.
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Nursing Services, Medications and Infection Prevention
What immunization duties does a facility have?
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Nursing Services, Medications and Infection Prevention
Educate residents and offer influenza and pneumococcal vaccines, and provide COVID-19 vaccine education and offers. Residents may refuse, and the facility documents education, offers and refusals.
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Nursing Services, Medications and Infection Prevention
What is a gradual dose reduction (GDR)?
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Nursing Services, Medications and Infection Prevention
A step-wise attempt to lower or stop a psychotropic drug. It is attempted in two separate quarters during the first year, at least a month apart, and then annually unless clinically contraindicated.
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Nursing Services, Medications and Infection Prevention
What is an antibiotic stewardship program?
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Nursing Services, Medications and Infection Prevention
A required program with protocols and monitoring to make sure antibiotics are prescribed only when needed and for the right drug, dose and duration.
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Nursing Services, Medications and Infection Prevention
What is medication reconciliation and when is it done?
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Nursing Services, Medications and Infection Prevention
Comparing a resident's current medication orders with prior lists to find omissions, duplications and conflicts. It is done on admission, readmission and transfers between care settings.
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Nursing Services, Medications and Infection Prevention
What is the facility assessment?
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Nursing Services, Medications and Infection Prevention
A written review of the resident population, services and resources used to decide staffing and competencies. It must be reviewed and updated at least annually and when major changes occur.
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Nursing Services, Medications and Infection Prevention
What is the federal requirement for the Director of Nursing (DON)?
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Nursing Services, Medications and Infection Prevention
A full-time registered nurse who manages nursing services. The DON cannot also serve as charge nurse, except in small facilities under limited waivers.
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Nursing Services, Medications and Infection Prevention
What is the state nurse aide registry?
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Nursing Services, Medications and Infection Prevention
A state list of certified nurse aides, including findings of abuse, neglect or misappropriation. Facilities check it before hiring and cannot use a person with such a finding.
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Nursing Services, Medications and Infection Prevention
What makes a drug an unnecessary drug?
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Nursing Services, Medications and Infection Prevention
One used in an excessive dose, for too long, without adequate monitoring, without an adequate indication, or with adverse effects that should lead to a change.
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Nursing Services, Medications and Infection Prevention
What medication error rates are allowed on survey?
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Nursing Services, Medications and Infection Prevention
A medication error rate of 5% or more is a deficiency, and no significant medication errors are permitted.
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Nursing Services, Medications and Infection Prevention
What must be in place before a resident receives a psychotropic drug?
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Nursing Services, Medications and Infection Prevention
A documented diagnosis or specific condition the drug treats, a clear indication, monitoring, and a care plan. Use must be necessary and the resident or representative should be informed.
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Nursing Services, Medications and Infection Prevention
What nurse staffing coverage do federal rules require?
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Nursing Services, Medications and Infection Prevention
Sufficient nursing staff for resident needs, a licensed nurse in charge on each shift, and a registered nurse on duty at least 8 consecutive hours a day, 7 days a week.
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Nursing Services, Medications and Infection Prevention
What should be done after a needle-stick injury?
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Nursing Services, Medications and Infection Prevention
Wash the area with soap and water, report immediately, get a medical evaluation and post-exposure follow-up, and record the incident on the sharps injury log as OSHA requires.
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Nursing Services, Medications and Infection Prevention
What staffing information must be posted in the facility?
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Nursing Services, Medications and Infection Prevention
Daily nurse staffing data, including facility name, date, census and hours worked by licensed and unlicensed nursing staff. It must be easy to see and kept for 18 months.
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Nursing Services, Medications and Infection Prevention
What tuberculosis screening is expected in a nursing home?
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Nursing Services, Medications and Infection Prevention
Screen residents on admission and staff on hire using a skin test or blood test, then follow CDC guidance and state rules for repeat testing and exposure.
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Nursing Services, Medications and Infection Prevention
When is soap and water preferred over alcohol-based hand rub?
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Nursing Services, Medications and Infection Prevention
When hands are visibly soiled and with C. difficile or norovirus exposure. Alcohol-based rub is otherwise preferred.
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Nursing Services, Medications and Infection Prevention
When may a resident self-administer medications?
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Nursing Services, Medications and Infection Prevention
When the interdisciplinary team decides it is clinically appropriate and safe. The medications must be stored securely and the plan documented in the care plan.
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Nursing Services, Medications and Infection Prevention
Why does C. difficile require special cleaning?
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Nursing Services, Medications and Infection Prevention
Its spores survive alcohol-based products. Use soap and water for hands and a sporicidal, bleach-based disinfectant for surfaces.
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Nursing Services, Medications and Infection Prevention
Why must facilities have a water management plan?
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Nursing Services, Medications and Infection Prevention
To reduce the risk of Legionella and other waterborne pathogens. CMS expects a plan with risk assessment, controls and monitoring.
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Physical Environment, Life Safety and Emergency Preparedness
How are fire extinguishers inspected?
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Physical Environment, Life Safety and Emergency Preparedness
A visual inspection monthly, an annual maintenance check by a qualified person and the correct class for the hazard, such as ABC for most areas.
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Physical Environment, Life Safety and Emergency Preparedness
How are residents tracked during an evacuation?
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Physical Environment, Life Safety and Emergency Preparedness
With a system that records each resident's location, such as ID bands or tags with medical information, and a count at the receiving site.
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Physical Environment, Life Safety and Emergency Preparedness
How does a facility decide between sheltering in place and evacuating?
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Physical Environment, Life Safety and Emergency Preparedness
Weigh the hazard, resident risk, building safety, time available and resources. Follow the plan and instructions from emergency management officials.
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Physical Environment, Life Safety and Emergency Preparedness
How is the emergency generator tested?
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Physical Environment, Life Safety and Emergency Preparedness
Tested monthly for at least 30 minutes under load, with power transferring within 10 seconds and results documented.
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Physical Environment, Life Safety and Emergency Preparedness
How is the fire alarm system maintained?
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Physical Environment, Life Safety and Emergency Preparedness
Regular inspection and testing of pull stations, detectors, notification devices and monitoring, with written records kept for surveyors.
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Physical Environment, Life Safety and Emergency Preparedness
How often must fire drills be held?
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Physical Environment, Life Safety and Emergency Preparedness
At least quarterly on each shift, at unexpected times and under varied conditions, with documentation of each drill.
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Physical Environment, Life Safety and Emergency Preparedness
What are delayed-egress locks?
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Physical Environment, Life Safety and Emergency Preparedness
Approved locks on exit doors, often used on secured units, that release within 15 seconds of force or sooner with the alarm, and release with fire alarm or sprinkler activation.
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Physical Environment, Life Safety and Emergency Preparedness
What are Interim Life Safety Measures (ILSM)?
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Physical Environment, Life Safety and Emergency Preparedness
Extra precautions used when life safety features are deficient or during construction, such as added drills, fire watch and exit inspections, to keep residents safe.
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Physical Environment, Life Safety and Emergency Preparedness
What are the automatic sprinkler requirements for nursing homes?
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Physical Environment, Life Safety and Emergency Preparedness
CMS requires all long-term care facilities to have complete, supervised automatic sprinkler systems, which are inspected, tested and maintained on schedule.
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Physical Environment, Life Safety and Emergency Preparedness
What are the emergency lighting requirements?
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Physical Environment, Life Safety and Emergency Preparedness
Lighting in exits and corridors that comes on automatically in a power loss and lasts at least 90 minutes, with regular testing.
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Physical Environment, Life Safety and Emergency Preparedness
What are the federal standards for resident bedrooms?
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Physical Environment, Life Safety and Emergency Preparedness
No more than four residents per room, at least 80 square feet per resident in multiple rooms and 100 square feet in single rooms, with a bed, chair, closet and window. Newer construction is limited to two residents.
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Physical Environment, Life Safety and Emergency Preparedness
What are the four core elements of the CMS emergency preparedness rule?
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Physical Environment, Life Safety and Emergency Preparedness
Risk assessment and planning, policies and procedures, a communication plan, and training and testing. The plan is reviewed and updated at least annually.
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Physical Environment, Life Safety and Emergency Preparedness
What are the key electrical safety practices?
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Physical Environment, Life Safety and Emergency Preparedness
Use ground-fault circuit interrupters where required, avoid overloaded outlets and extension cords, inspect resident-owned appliances, and prohibit unsafe items such as space heaters.
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Physical Environment, Life Safety and Emergency Preparedness
What are the pest control requirements?
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Physical Environment, Life Safety and Emergency Preparedness
A pest control program, usually under contract, that keeps the facility free of pests. Keep service records and respond quickly to sightings.
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Physical Environment, Life Safety and Emergency Preparedness
What are the types of evacuation?
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Physical Environment, Life Safety and Emergency Preparedness
Horizontal moves residents to a safe area on the same floor, vertical moves them between floors, and total moves everyone out of the building.
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Physical Environment, Life Safety and Emergency Preparedness
What are the water temperature rules?
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Physical Environment, Life Safety and Emergency Preparedness
Hot water at resident-use fixtures must be kept within a safe range, generally about 105 to 120 degrees F, to prevent scalding while limiting Legionella risk. Follow CMS and state rules.
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Physical Environment, Life Safety and Emergency Preparedness
What does defend-in-place mean?
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Physical Environment, Life Safety and Emergency Preparedness
Because many residents cannot evacuate quickly, staff move them to an adjacent smoke compartment and rely on compartmentation rather than a full evacuation.
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Physical Environment, Life Safety and Emergency Preparedness
What does PASS stand for with a fire extinguisher?
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Physical Environment, Life Safety and Emergency Preparedness
Pull the pin, Aim at the base of the fire, Squeeze the handle, and Sweep side to side.
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Physical Environment, Life Safety and Emergency Preparedness
What does RACE stand for in a fire emergency?
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Physical Environment, Life Safety and Emergency Preparedness
Rescue residents in danger, sound the Alarm, Contain the fire by closing doors, and Extinguish or Evacuate.
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Physical Environment, Life Safety and Emergency Preparedness
What emergency exercises are required each year?
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Physical Environment, Life Safety and Emergency Preparedness
Two exercises: a full-scale exercise (community-based or facility-based) and one additional exercise, which may be a tabletop. Document and review the results.
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Physical Environment, Life Safety and Emergency Preparedness
What emergency supplies must the plan address?
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Physical Environment, Life Safety and Emergency Preparedness
Food, water, medical and pharmaceutical supplies, alternate power for temperature control and lighting, fire detection and sewage and waste disposal.
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Physical Environment, Life Safety and Emergency Preparedness
What fire protection is required for the kitchen cooking area?
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Physical Environment, Life Safety and Emergency Preparedness
A hood and automatic fire suppression system over cooking equipment that is inspected twice a year, regular duct cleaning, and a Class K extinguisher for cooking oils.
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Physical Environment, Life Safety and Emergency Preparedness
What indoor temperature range must a facility maintain?
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Physical Environment, Life Safety and Emergency Preparedness
A comfortable and safe temperature, with CMS rules requiring 71 to 81 degrees F in areas used by residents.
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Physical Environment, Life Safety and Emergency Preparedness
What is a hazard vulnerability analysis (HVA)?
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Physical Environment, Life Safety and Emergency Preparedness
An all-hazards assessment of the risks the facility faces, such as storms, fires, outbreaks and power loss, ranked by likelihood and impact to guide planning.
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Physical Environment, Life Safety and Emergency Preparedness
What is a preventive maintenance program?
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Physical Environment, Life Safety and Emergency Preparedness
A scheduled program of inspecting, servicing and repairing equipment and systems, with work orders and logs, to prevent failures and show compliance.
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Physical Environment, Life Safety and Emergency Preparedness
What is a smoke compartment?
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Physical Environment, Life Safety and Emergency Preparedness
A section of the building divided by smoke barriers so smoke and fire are contained. Compartments are generally limited to 22,500 square feet with a maximum travel distance of 200 feet.
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Physical Environment, Life Safety and Emergency Preparedness
What is an infection control risk assessment (ICRA) for construction?
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Physical Environment, Life Safety and Emergency Preparedness
A review before construction or renovation of risks to residents, such as dust and mold, with barriers, ventilation controls, cleaning and monitoring.
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Physical Environment, Life Safety and Emergency Preparedness
What limits apply to decorations and combustibles?
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Physical Environment, Life Safety and Emergency Preparedness
Decorations must be flame-retardant and limited so they do not spread fire. Open flames such as candles are not allowed, and corridors and exits must stay clear.
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Physical Environment, Life Safety and Emergency Preparedness
What must a resident call system provide?
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Physical Environment, Life Safety and Emergency Preparedness
Residents must be able to call for staff from their bed and from toilet and bathing facilities. Staff must respond promptly and the system must be tested.
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Physical Environment, Life Safety and Emergency Preparedness
What should a facility smoking policy include?
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Physical Environment, Life Safety and Emergency Preparedness
Designated smoking areas, supervision and assessment of residents' ability to smoke safely, no smoking near oxygen, and safe disposal of materials.
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Physical Environment, Life Safety and Emergency Preparedness
What should an emergency communication plan include?
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Physical Environment, Life Safety and Emergency Preparedness
Contact information for staff, residents' families and physicians, and state and local officials, plus alternate communication methods if phones fail.
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Physical Environment, Life Safety and Emergency Preparedness
What storage rules apply to oxygen cylinders in the building?
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Physical Environment, Life Safety and Emergency Preparedness
Keep cylinders upright and secured with caps on, separate full and empty ones, post signs, and keep them away from heat and ignition sources. Larger quantities need rated storage rooms.
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Physical Environment, Life Safety and Emergency Preparedness
When is a fire watch required?
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Physical Environment, Life Safety and Emergency Preparedness
When the fire alarm or sprinkler system is out of service for more than four hours in a 24-hour period. Notify authorities and monitor the building until it is restored.
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Physical Environment, Life Safety and Emergency Preparedness
Which edition of the Life Safety Code does CMS require?
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Physical Environment, Life Safety and Emergency Preparedness
The 2012 edition of NFPA 101 and the 2012 edition of NFPA 99 for health care facilities, as adopted by CMS.
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Physical Environment, Life Safety and Emergency Preparedness
Why are transfer agreements and community coordination important in emergencies?
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Physical Environment, Life Safety and Emergency Preparedness
They secure receiving facilities and transport in advance and link the facility with local emergency management for shared resources and information.
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Purchasing, Contracts and Vendor Management
How does a request for proposal (RFP) work?
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Purchasing, Contracts and Vendor Management
The facility sends written requirements to several vendors, scores their proposals on cost, quality and references, and negotiates with the best option.
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Purchasing, Contracts and Vendor Management
How is a capital purchase evaluated?
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Purchasing, Contracts and Vendor Management
By comparing cost with expected benefits using payback period, return on investment and lease-versus-buy analysis, and considering maintenance and life span.
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Purchasing, Contracts and Vendor Management
How should vendors be screened and monitored?
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Purchasing, Contracts and Vendor Management
Check exclusion lists, insurance certificates and licenses, require business associate agreements where PHI is shared, and review performance regularly.
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Purchasing, Contracts and Vendor Management
What are the elements of a valid contract?
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Purchasing, Contracts and Vendor Management
Offer, acceptance, consideration, legal capacity of the parties and a lawful purpose, with mutual agreement.
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Purchasing, Contracts and Vendor Management
What is a group purchasing organization (GPO)?
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Purchasing, Contracts and Vendor Management
A group that negotiates discounted prices for many members. Payment structures must fit the Anti-Kickback safe harbor.
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Purchasing, Contracts and Vendor Management
What is a three-way match in accounts payable?
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Purchasing, Contracts and Vendor Management
Matching the purchase order, the receiving report and the vendor invoice before payment to prevent errors and fraud.
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Purchasing, Contracts and Vendor Management
What is an indemnification clause?
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Purchasing, Contracts and Vendor Management
A promise by one party to cover the other's losses from specified claims. Review who indemnifies whom and whether insurance backs it.
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Purchasing, Contracts and Vendor Management
What is par level inventory control?
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Purchasing, Contracts and Vendor Management
Setting minimum and maximum quantities for each supply, reordering at set points, using first in first out and counting regularly to avoid shortages and waste.
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Purchasing, Contracts and Vendor Management
What key terms should be reviewed before signing a vendor contract?
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Purchasing, Contracts and Vendor Management
Scope of services, price, term and renewal, termination rights, indemnification, insurance, confidentiality, compliance and HIPAA terms, and performance standards.
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Purchasing, Contracts and Vendor Management
What must a medical director agreement address?
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Purchasing, Contracts and Vendor Management
Written duties and time commitment, compensation at fair market value not tied to referrals, and compliance with the Anti-Kickback Statute.
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Purchasing, Contracts and Vendor Management
What must an institutional pharmacy contract address?
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Purchasing, Contracts and Vendor Management
Timely delivery and emergency supply, unit-dose packaging, consultant pharmacist services, records, quality and compliance with federal and state law.
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Purchasing, Contracts and Vendor Management
What should a contract with a laboratory or radiology provider require?
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Purchasing, Contracts and Vendor Management
A valid CLIA certificate for lab work, timely results, reporting of critical values, and billing that follows payer rules.
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Purchasing, Contracts and Vendor Management
Who is responsible for services provided under arrangement?
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Purchasing, Contracts and Vendor Management
The facility. It must make sure contracted services, such as therapy or staffing, meet professional standards and the care plan.
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Purchasing, Contracts and Vendor Management
Why should a contract require a vendor to carry insurance?
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Purchasing, Contracts and Vendor Management
It protects the facility and residents if the vendor's staff cause harm. Request certificates of insurance and confirm the facility is named where appropriate.
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Purchasing, Contracts and Vendor Management
Why should a facility track contract expirations and automatic renewals?
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Purchasing, Contracts and Vendor Management
To avoid unwanted renewals, renegotiate rates, confirm vendor insurance and compliance, and prevent lapses in needed services.
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QAPI, Quality Measures and Star Ratings
Are QAA committee records protected from survey review?
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QAPI, Quality Measures and Star Ratings
Surveyors may not require disclosure of QAA committee records except to the extent needed to verify that the committee exists and meets requirements.
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QAPI, Quality Measures and Star Ratings
How are short-stay and long-stay residents defined for quality measures?
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QAPI, Quality Measures and Star Ratings
Short-stay residents have stayed 100 cumulative days or fewer. Long-stay residents have stayed more than 100 cumulative days.
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QAPI, Quality Measures and Star Ratings
How is the health inspection rating assigned?
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QAPI, Quality Measures and Star Ratings
It is based on recent standard and complaint survey results and is relative within each state. The top 10% of facilities earn 5 stars, the middle 70% earn 2 to 4 stars and the bottom 20% earn 1 star.
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QAPI, Quality Measures and Star Ratings
How is the overall star rating determined?
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QAPI, Quality Measures and Star Ratings
It starts with the health inspection rating and is adjusted up or down according to the staffing and quality measure ratings.
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QAPI, Quality Measures and Star Ratings
What are examples of long-stay quality measures?
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QAPI, Quality Measures and Star Ratings
Falls with major injury, high-risk pressure ulcers, antipsychotic use, urinary catheter use, urinary tract infections, weight loss and worsening ability to move independently.
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QAPI, Quality Measures and Star Ratings
What are examples of short-stay quality measures?
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QAPI, Quality Measures and Star Ratings
Rehospitalization after admission, emergency department visits, improvement in function and newly received antipsychotic medication.
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QAPI, Quality Measures and Star Ratings
What are quality measures (QMs) in nursing homes?
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QAPI, Quality Measures and Star Ratings
Measures calculated mainly from MDS data that show how well a facility cares for residents, such as falls, pressure injuries and antipsychotic use. CMS reports them on Care Compare.
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QAPI, Quality Measures and Star Ratings
What are the components of the Five-Star Quality Rating System?
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QAPI, Quality Measures and Star Ratings
Health inspections, staffing and quality measures, each rated, and combined into an overall rating from 1 to 5 stars. Health inspection ratings are relative within each state.
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QAPI, Quality Measures and Star Ratings
What data sources feed a QAPI program?
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QAPI, Quality Measures and Star Ratings
MDS quality measures, incident and fall reports, infection surveillance, complaints and grievances, satisfaction surveys, staffing and turnover data and survey results.
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QAPI, Quality Measures and Star Ratings
What is a just culture in quality improvement?
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QAPI, Quality Measures and Star Ratings
An environment where staff can report errors and near misses without fear of unfair blame, while still being held accountable for reckless behavior.
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QAPI, Quality Measures and Star Ratings
What is a performance improvement project (PIP)?
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QAPI, Quality Measures and Star Ratings
A focused, data-driven project that targets a high-risk, high-volume or problem-prone area, sets goals, tests changes and tracks results.
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QAPI, Quality Measures and Star Ratings
What is a run chart?
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QAPI, Quality Measures and Star Ratings
A graph of data over time that shows trends and whether a change led to improvement.
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QAPI, Quality Measures and Star Ratings
What is benchmarking?
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QAPI, Quality Measures and Star Ratings
Comparing the facility's results with state and national averages or top performers, such as on Care Compare, to set realistic goals.
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QAPI, Quality Measures and Star Ratings
What is failure mode and effects analysis (FMEA)?
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QAPI, Quality Measures and Star Ratings
A proactive method that maps a process, identifies how it might fail, ranks the risks and plans safeguards before harm occurs.
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QAPI, Quality Measures and Star Ratings
What is QAPI and what are its five elements?
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QAPI, Quality Measures and Star Ratings
Quality Assurance and Performance Improvement. The elements are design and scope, governance and leadership, feedback data systems and monitoring, performance improvement projects, and systematic analysis and systemic action.
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QAPI, Quality Measures and Star Ratings
What is root cause analysis?
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QAPI, Quality Measures and Star Ratings
A structured method, such as the five whys or a fishbone diagram, that finds the underlying causes of a problem rather than only fixing symptoms.
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QAPI, Quality Measures and Star Ratings
What is the PDSA cycle?
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QAPI, Quality Measures and Star Ratings
Plan, Do, Study, Act. A repeating method for testing a change on a small scale, measuring results and adjusting before wider use.
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QAPI, Quality Measures and Star Ratings
What must a facility's QAPI plan include?
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QAPI, Quality Measures and Star Ratings
A written plan describing how the facility will carry out the QAPI program, available to surveyors and updated regularly, with data, priorities and responsibilities.
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QAPI, Quality Measures and Star Ratings
Which actions help reduce avoidable hospital readmissions?
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QAPI, Quality Measures and Star Ratings
Early detection of change in condition, structured communication tools such as SBAR, medication management, advance care planning, strong physician coverage and good transitions of care.
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QAPI, Quality Measures and Star Ratings
Who serves on the QAA committee and how often does it meet?
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QAPI, Quality Measures and Star Ratings
The director of nursing, medical director or designee, at least three other staff including the administrator or other leader, and the infection preventionist. It meets at least quarterly.
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Resident Rights, Person-Centered Care and Ethics
Can a resident choose their own attending physician?
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Resident Rights, Person-Centered Care and Ethics
Yes. The resident may choose an attending physician who meets facility and regulatory requirements, and must be told if the physician is no longer able to serve.
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Resident Rights, Person-Centered Care and Ethics
For what reasons may a facility transfer or discharge a resident involuntarily?
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Resident Rights, Person-Centered Care and Ethics
Necessary for the resident's welfare, the resident's health improved, safety of others endangered, health of others endangered, nonpayment after notice, or the facility ceases to operate.
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Resident Rights, Person-Centered Care and Ethics
How do federal rules define abuse?
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Resident Rights, Person-Centered Care and Ethics
The willful infliction of injury, unreasonable confinement, intimidation or punishment that results in physical harm, pain or mental anguish.
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Resident Rights, Person-Centered Care and Ethics
How do federal rules define neglect?
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Resident Rights, Person-Centered Care and Ethics
Failure of the facility or its staff to provide the goods and services needed to avoid physical harm, pain, mental anguish or emotional distress.
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Resident Rights, Person-Centered Care and Ethics
How must facilities screen employees to prevent abuse?
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Resident Rights, Person-Centered Care and Ethics
Check state nurse aide registries and licensing boards and run background checks. Do not employ anyone found guilty of abuse, neglect or misappropriation.
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Resident Rights, Person-Centered Care and Ethics
What are a resident's rights regarding mail and communication?
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Resident Rights, Person-Centered Care and Ethics
To send and receive mail promptly and unopened, to access a telephone and, where available, the internet and other communication, and to receive materials in a form they can use.
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Resident Rights, Person-Centered Care and Ethics
What are the elements of informed consent?
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Resident Rights, Person-Centered Care and Ethics
The resident has capacity, receives information on the condition, benefits, risks and alternatives, and agrees voluntarily.
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Resident Rights, Person-Centered Care and Ethics
What are the four principles of biomedical ethics?
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Resident Rights, Person-Centered Care and Ethics
Autonomy, beneficence, nonmaleficence and justice.
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Resident Rights, Person-Centered Care and Ethics
What are the limits on PRN psychotropic orders?
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Resident Rights, Person-Centered Care and Ethics
PRN psychotropic orders are limited to 14 days. A PRN antipsychotic cannot be renewed unless the prescriber evaluates the resident and documents the rationale.
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Resident Rights, Person-Centered Care and Ethics
What are the main categories of resident rights under federal rules?
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Resident Rights, Person-Centered Care and Ethics
Dignity and respect, self-determination, privacy and confidentiality, communication, visitation, participation in care planning, refusal of treatment, freedom from abuse, neglect and restraints, management of finances, grievances and protection in transfer and discharge.
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Resident Rights, Person-Centered Care and Ethics
What are the reporting time limits for alleged abuse?
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Resident Rights, Person-Centered Care and Ethics
Report immediately, and no later than 2 hours if abuse or serious bodily injury is suspected, or 24 hours if there is no serious bodily injury. Reports go to the administrator and the state survey agency.
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Resident Rights, Person-Centered Care and Ethics
What are the requirements of a facility grievance process?
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Resident Rights, Person-Centered Care and Ethics
Residents may voice grievances without fear of reprisal. The facility must post how to file, designate a grievance official, resolve concerns promptly and give a written decision.
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Resident Rights, Person-Centered Care and Ethics
What are the rules on holding resident funds?
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Resident Rights, Person-Centered Care and Ethics
The facility must safeguard and account for funds that residents choose to deposit. Balances over $100 go in an interest-bearing account, quarterly statements are provided, and a surety bond is required.
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Resident Rights, Person-Centered Care and Ethics
What are the rules on resident visitation?
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Resident Rights, Person-Centered Care and Ethics
Residents may receive visitors of their choosing at any time, with their consent, and the facility may not restrict visits without a clinical or safety reason. Ombudsmen and government officials have access too.
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Resident Rights, Person-Centered Care and Ethics
What does freedom from restraints mean under federal rules?
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Resident Rights, Person-Centered Care and Ethics
Residents have the right to be free from physical or chemical restraints used for discipline or convenience, or not required to treat medical symptoms.
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Resident Rights, Person-Centered Care and Ethics
What does the long-term care ombudsman do?
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Resident Rights, Person-Centered Care and Ethics
An advocate for residents under the Older Americans Act who investigates complaints, has access to facilities and residents, and must be given notice of involuntary transfers and discharges.
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Resident Rights, Person-Centered Care and Ethics
What does the Patient Self-Determination Act require?
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Resident Rights, Person-Centered Care and Ethics
Providers that receive Medicare or Medicaid funds must give adult patients written information about their right to make care decisions and to prepare advance directives.
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Resident Rights, Person-Centered Care and Ethics
What does the right to dignity and respect look like in daily practice?
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Resident Rights, Person-Centered Care and Ethics
Use the resident's preferred name, knock before entering, offer choices, keep personal care private and avoid labels such as feeders.
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Resident Rights, Person-Centered Care and Ethics
What does the right to privacy and confidentiality cover?
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Resident Rights, Person-Centered Care and Ethics
Privacy during personal care and treatment, in telephone calls, mail and visits, and confidentiality of personal and medical records, subject to HIPAA and state law.
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Resident Rights, Person-Centered Care and Ethics
What is a bed-hold policy?
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Resident Rights, Person-Centered Care and Ethics
The facility must give written information on the state bed-hold policy and its own readmission policy before and at the time of transfer, such as to a hospital.
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Resident Rights, Person-Centered Care and Ethics
What is a POLST and how does it differ from an advance directive?
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Resident Rights, Person-Centered Care and Ethics
Physician Orders for Life-Sustaining Treatment are medical orders for seriously ill or frail patients that travel with them across settings. An advance directive states wishes but is not itself a medical order. The name varies by state.
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Resident Rights, Person-Centered Care and Ethics
What is an advance directive?
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Resident Rights, Person-Centered Care and Ethics
Written instructions about future health care, such as a living will or a health care power of attorney. Facilities must inform residents of their right to have one and cannot condition care on having one.
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Resident Rights, Person-Centered Care and Ethics
What is culture change in long-term care?
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Resident Rights, Person-Centered Care and Ethics
A movement to make nursing homes more homelike and resident-directed, through models such as the Eden Alternative and the Green House Project.
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Resident Rights, Person-Centered Care and Ethics
What is misappropriation of resident property?
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Resident Rights, Person-Centered Care and Ethics
The deliberate misplacement, exploitation or wrongful use, temporary or permanent, of a resident's belongings or money without consent.
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Resident Rights, Person-Centered Care and Ethics
What is person-centered care?
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Resident Rights, Person-Centered Care and Ethics
Care built around each resident's preferences, values and goals, with the resident as an active partner in decisions.
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Resident Rights, Person-Centered Care and Ethics
What is the difference between capacity and competency?
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Resident Rights, Person-Centered Care and Ethics
Capacity is a clinical judgment about a person's ability to understand and decide. Competency is a legal determination made by a court.
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Resident Rights, Person-Centered Care and Ethics
What is the resident's right to self-determination?
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Resident Rights, Person-Centered Care and Ethics
The right to make choices about daily life and health care, such as schedules, activities, and care plan decisions. The facility must honour preferences whenever feasible.
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Resident Rights, Person-Centered Care and Ethics
What is the role of CMS in nursing home regulation?
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Resident Rights, Person-Centered Care and Ethics
The Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services administers Medicare and Medicaid, sets the requirements of participation, and oversees enforcement. State survey agencies conduct inspections under contract.
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Resident Rights, Person-Centered Care and Ethics
What must a facility do after an allegation of abuse?
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Resident Rights, Person-Centered Care and Ethics
Protect residents from further harm, investigate thoroughly, and report results of the investigation to the administrator and state agency within 5 working days.
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Resident Rights, Person-Centered Care and Ethics
What must a facility do for a resident council?
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Resident Rights, Person-Centered Care and Ethics
Allow residents to organize and meet, provide private space, assign a staff liaison, and respond in writing to council concerns and recommendations.
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Resident Rights, Person-Centered Care and Ethics
What notice is generally required for an involuntary transfer or discharge?
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Resident Rights, Person-Centered Care and Ethics
Written notice at least 30 days in advance, in a language and manner the resident understands, with a copy to the ombudsman. Shorter notice is allowed in specific emergencies.
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Resident Rights, Person-Centered Care and Ethics
What rights does a resident have regarding refusing treatment?
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Resident Rights, Person-Centered Care and Ethics
The right to refuse treatment, refuse to take part in experimental research, and make an advance directive. The facility must explain the likely consequences and document the refusal.
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Resident Rights, Person-Centered Care and Ethics
Where are the federal requirements of participation for long-term care facilities found?
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Resident Rights, Person-Centered Care and Ethics
42 CFR Part 483, Subpart B. CMS sets the requirements, and state survey agencies inspect facilities for compliance.
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Resident Rights, Person-Centered Care and Ethics
Which federal law created the nursing home reform standards for Medicare and Medicaid certified facilities?
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Resident Rights, Person-Centered Care and Ethics
The Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1987 (OBRA 87), also called the Nursing Home Reform Act. It set federal standards for quality of care and residents' rights.
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Resident Rights, Person-Centered Care and Ethics
Who makes decisions for a resident who lacks capacity?
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Resident Rights, Person-Centered Care and Ethics
A health care agent named in a power of attorney, a court-appointed guardian, or a surrogate chosen by state law. Involve the resident as much as possible.
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Survey, Certification and Enforcement
How are complaints prioritized for investigation?
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Survey, Certification and Enforcement
By risk. Complaints alleging immediate jeopardy must be investigated within 2 working days, with other complaints investigated within set time frames according to priority.
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Survey, Certification and Enforcement
How does the scope and severity grid work?
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Survey, Certification and Enforcement
Severity has four levels from no harm with minimal potential to immediate jeopardy, and scope is isolated, pattern or widespread. Together they give letter grades A through L.
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Survey, Certification and Enforcement
How often are standard surveys conducted?
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Survey, Certification and Enforcement
At least every 15 months, with a statewide average of 12 months or less.
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Survey, Certification and Enforcement
What are F-tags?
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Survey, Certification and Enforcement
Numbers assigned to federal nursing home requirements, found in Appendix PP of the State Operations Manual, used to cite deficiencies. For example, F689 covers accident hazards.
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Survey, Certification and Enforcement
What are the main steps of a standard survey?
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Survey, Certification and Enforcement
Offsite preparation, entrance conference, initial tour, resident sample selection, observations, interviews and record review, team deliberation and an exit conference.
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Survey, Certification and Enforcement
What are the types of surveys?
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Survey, Certification and Enforcement
Standard surveys, complaint and facility-reported incident investigations, revisit surveys, life safety code surveys and focused infection control surveys.
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Survey, Certification and Enforcement
What does a survey team request on arrival?
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Survey, Certification and Enforcement
A resident roster, census and resident-specific lists such as those with pressure injuries or restraints, staffing and shift information, and key policies.
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Survey, Certification and Enforcement
What enforcement remedies can be imposed on nursing homes?
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Survey, Certification and Enforcement
Civil money penalties, denial of payment for new admissions, directed plans of correction, directed in-service training, state monitoring, temporary management and termination.
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Survey, Certification and Enforcement
What is a civil money penalty (CMP)?
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Survey, Certification and Enforcement
A fine imposed per day or per instance for noncompliance. The amount depends on severity, scope, history and the facility's financial condition.
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Survey, Certification and Enforcement
What is a revisit survey?
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Survey, Certification and Enforcement
A follow-up survey to verify that deficiencies have been corrected. The date of compliance is set when correction is verified.
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Survey, Certification and Enforcement
What is immediate jeopardy?
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Survey, Certification and Enforcement
Noncompliance that has caused or is likely to cause serious injury, harm, impairment or death. It is the highest severity (J, K or L) and must be corrected immediately.
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Survey, Certification and Enforcement
What is informal dispute resolution (IDR)?
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Survey, Certification and Enforcement
A process to challenge cited deficiencies, requested within the 10 days after receiving the statement. It does not delay enforcement actions.
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Survey, Certification and Enforcement
What is substandard quality of care?
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Survey, Certification and Enforcement
A finding of serious deficiencies in areas such as resident rights, quality of life or care, or nursing services at a level above isolated minor harm. It triggers notice and enforcement actions.
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Survey, Certification and Enforcement
What is the CMS-2567?
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Survey, Certification and Enforcement
The Statement of Deficiencies and Plan of Correction. It lists cited deficiencies and the facility's response, and is available to the public.
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Survey, Certification and Enforcement
What is the Special Focus Facility (SFF) program?
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Survey, Certification and Enforcement
A CMS program for facilities with a history of serious quality problems. They are surveyed more often and must show sustained improvement or face termination.
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Survey, Certification and Enforcement
What must a plan of correction include and when is it due?
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Survey, Certification and Enforcement
How the problem was fixed for affected residents, how others at risk are identified, systemic changes, how it will be monitored and a completion date. It is due within 10 calendar days.
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Survey, Certification and Enforcement
What should an administrator do during a survey?
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Survey, Certification and Enforcement
Be cooperative and professional, appoint a liaison, provide documents promptly, keep a log of requests, clarify findings and never alter or fabricate records.
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Survey, Certification and Enforcement
What survey results must a facility post?
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Survey, Certification and Enforcement
The most recent survey results in a place readable by residents and visitors, along with notice of how to obtain related reports and plans of correction.
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Survey, Certification and Enforcement
When do mandatory denial of payment and termination apply?
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Survey, Certification and Enforcement
Mandatory denial of payment for new admissions applies if substantial compliance is not achieved within 3 months. Termination from Medicare and Medicaid follows if not achieved within 6 months.
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Survey, Certification and Enforcement
Who conducts nursing home surveys?
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Survey, Certification and Enforcement
State survey agencies, under agreement with CMS, inspect facilities for compliance with federal requirements for Medicare and Medicaid participation.
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Leadership, Governance, Strategy and Ethics 451-500
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QAPI, Quality Measures and Star Ratings 401-450
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S1 Resident Rights, Person-Centered Care and Ethics (35); S2 Clinical Care, Care Planning and the MDS 001-050
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S10 Health Information, HIPAA and Technology; S11 Legal Issues, Liability and Insurance 301-350
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S12 Purchasing, Contracts and Vendor Management; S13 Physical Environment, Life Safety and Emergency Preparedness 351-400
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S3 Nursing Services, Medications and Infection Prevention 051-100
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S4 Dietary, Rehab, Social Services and Activities (35); S5 Dementia, Behavioral Health and Palliative Care 101-150
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S6 Admissions, Discharge and Transfer 151-200
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S7 Financial Management and Reimbursement 201-250
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S8 Human Resources and Staffing; S9 Marketing, Census and Community Relations 251-300
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